Break-even analysis
- Contribution margin
- CM = p − v
- Break-even quantity
- QBE = FC/(p − v)
- Target profit
- Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
- Profit
- π = (p − v)·Q − FC
- Margin of safety
- (Q − QBE)/Q
Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 8 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.
Content marketing mainly aims to:
Research shows young consumers see a long-established brand as old-fashioned, although product quality is good. What is the most suitable strategy?
The income elasticity of demand for a good is -0.4. The good is:
Under a fixed exchange rate with free capital movement, a country:
A company pays its insurance for next year in advance. How is the payment recorded at the year end?
Inventory days are 60, receivable days 45 and payable days 30. What is the cash conversion (operating) cycle?
A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €20 000 per year and a variable cost of €10 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €23 000 per year and a variable cost of €4 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?
A product sells for €23 per unit, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €16 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 3 000 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.
Answer: B · Attract and keep an audience by offering useful or entertaining content
Content marketing provides value first, such as guides, videos or articles. It builds trust and search visibility, leading to sales over time.
Answer: D · Repositioning the brand through new communication and image
Repositioning changes how the target segment sees the brand, for example with updated design, new messages and channels the younger audience uses.
Answer: C · An inferior good
A negative income elasticity means demand falls as income rises, which defines an inferior good; luxuries have income elasticity above 1.
Answer: D · Loses control of independent monetary policy
A country cannot simultaneously have a fixed exchange rate, free capital flows and an independent monetary policy; it must give up one of the three.
Answer: B · As a prepaid expense (asset)
The unused part of the payment is an asset (prepayment) and becomes an expense in the period it covers.
Answer: B · 75 days
60 + 45 − 30 = 75 days between paying suppliers and collecting cash from customers. A shorter cycle needs less working capital finance.
Answer: Q = 500 units
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.
Answer: MS = 33.33 %
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
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