Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
periods01211 + EAR = ?16% / 2

A credit card charges a nominal interest rate of 16% per year, compounded semi-annually. Find the effective annual rate EAR in percent.

r = 16%m = 2
EAR = %
2.Time value of moneyHard
months01…240…300€200 000AB = ?A2.4% / 12

A mortgage of €200 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 25 years at 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 20? Find the outstanding balance B.

P = €200 0002.4% / 12N = 300k = 240
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−60 00017 00015 00019 00018 000

An investment of €60 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €17 000, €15 000, €19 000, €18 000. The cost of capital is 8%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 8%CF0 = −60 000CF1 = 17 000CF2 = 15 000CF3 = 19 000CF4 = 18 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−25 00011 50016 000

A project costs €25 000 and returns €11 500, €16 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −25 000CF1 = 11 500CF2 = 16 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…8€30€30€30 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 6% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 4 years. The yield to maturity is 7% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 6%YTM = 7%n = 4
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard

A bond trades at €985 with a yield to maturity of 3% (annual compounding) and a Macaulay duration of 7.9 years. Use the modified duration to estimate the new price P if the yield falls by 75 basis points.

P0 = €985y = 3%D = 7.9Δy = −75 bp
P = €
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€6 000 000re​ = 9%debt€5 000 000rd​ = 5%T = 21%

A company has equity worth €6 000 000 and debt worth €5 000 000. Its cost of equity is 9%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 5% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.

E = €6 000 000D = €5 000 000re = 9%rd = 5%T = 21%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity2 000 000 × €46.50D0​ = €1.90g = 3%debt€93 000 000rd​ = 4.5%T = 28%

A company has 2 000 000 shares trading at €46.50; the book value of its equity is €37 200 000. It just paid a dividend of €1.90 per share, and dividends grow by 3% per year. Its debt has a market value of €93 000 000 and a pre-tax cost of 4.5%. The tax rate is 28%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 2 000 000P0 = €46.50book equity = €37 200 000D0 = €1.90g = 3%D = €93 000 000rd = 4.5%T = 28%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €20 per unit with a variable cost of €8 per unit. Fixed costs are €12 000 per month. How many units Q must be sold per month to make a profit of €12 000?

F = €12 000p = €20v = €8profit = €12 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €10 per unit, with a variable cost of €6 per unit and fixed costs of €4 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 1 250 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €4 000p = €10v = €6budget = 1 250
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: EAR = 16.64 %

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate per period

r/m = 0.16/2 = 0.08

Compound over one year

EAR = (1 + 0.08)2 − 1 = 1.166 − 1 = 16.64%

Answer

EAR = 16.64%

The EAR is always above the nominal rate when interest compounds more than once a year.

2.Time value of money

Answer: B = 50115 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.002, N = 300
A = 200 000·0.002/(1 − (1 + 0.002)−300) = €887.19

Present value of the remaining payments

Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.

N − k = 300 − 240 = 60
B = 887.2·(1 − (1 + 0.002)−60)/0.002 = €50 114.63

Answer

B = €50 114.63
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −3086 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −60 000
CF1/(1 + 0.08)1 = 17 000/1.08 = 15 740.74
CF2/(1 + 0.08)2 = 15 000/1.166 = 12 860.08
CF3/(1 + 0.08)3 = 19 000/1.26 = 15 082.81
CF4/(1 + 0.08)4 = 18 000/1.36 = 13 230.54

Add them up

NPV = €−3 085.83

Answer

NPV = €−3 085.83

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 6.241 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(5%) = 464.85
NPV(10%) = −1 322.31

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 5 + 5·464.85/(464.85 − (−1 322.31)) = 6.301%
exact: NPV(6.241%) = 0 → IRR = 6.241%

Answer

IRR = 6.241%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 965.6 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €30.00, i = 0.035, N = 8

Present value of the coupons

€30.00·(1 − 0.7594)/0.035 = €206.22

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.7594 = €759.41

Price

P = €965.63

Answer

P = €965.63

The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1042 €

Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.

Modified duration

Dmod = 7.9/1.03 = 7.67

Estimated price change

%ΔP ≈ −7.67·(−0.0075) = 5.752%
P ≈ 985·(1 + 0.05752) = €1 041.66

Answer

P = €1 041.66

Duration is a linear estimate; for large yield changes convexity makes the true price a little higher.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6.705 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €11 000 000, E/V = 0.5455, D/V = 0.4545

WACC

WACC = 0.5455·9% + 0.4545·5%·(1 − 0.21) = 6.705%

Answer

WACC = 6.705%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 5.224 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 1.9·1.03 = €1.96
re = 1.957/46.5 + 0.03 = 7.209%

Market values

E = 2 000 000·€46.50 = €93 000 000
V = €186 000 000, E/V = 0.5, D/V = 0.5

WACC

WACC = 0.5·7.209% + 0.5·4.5%·(1 − 0.28) = 5.224%

Answer

WACC = 5.224%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 2000 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Contribution margin per unit

p − v = 20 − 8 = €12

Units for the target profit

Q = (F + profit)/(p − v) = (12 000 + 12 000)/12 = 2 000

Answer

Q = 2 000 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 20 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 4 000/4 = 1 000

Margin of safety

MS = (1 250 − 1 000)/1 250·100 = 20%

Answer

MS = 20%

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