Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123€2 000FV = ?

You invest €2 000 at a nominal rate of 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 3 years.

PV = €2 0003.6% / 12n = 3
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…N = ?€8 000€150€150€150€1503% / 12

You borrow €8 000 at 3% per year, compounded monthly, and repay €150 at the end of every month. How many months does it take until the loan is repaid (the last payment may be smaller)? Give the number of payments N.

P = €8 000A = €1503% / 12
N = payments
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123…9€30 000€4 000€4 000€4 000€4 000r = 12%, EAC = ?

A machine costs €30 000 today, lasts 9 years and costs €4 000 per year to run (paid at the end of each year). The cost of capital is 12%. Find its equivalent annual cost EAC.

C0 = €30 000M = €4 000n = 9r = 12%
EAC = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years01234567−100 00013 000+4%+4%+4%+4%+4%+4%r = 10%, NPV = ?

A project costs €100 000 today. Its cash flow is €13 000 at the end of year 1 and grows by 4% per year until the last cash flow at the end of year 7. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €100 000CF1 = €13 000g = 4%n = 7r = 10%
NPV = €
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123456€22.50€22.50€22.50 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4.5% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 3 years. The yield to maturity is 2.5% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%YTM = 2.5%n = 3
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
half-years0123…8€963€15€15€15 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 3% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 4 years. It sells for €963. Find its yield to maturity YTM as an annual rate (twice the half-yearly yield), in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 3% (2×)n = 4P = €963
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€8 000 000re​ = 8%debt€1 000 000rd​ = 4%T = 21%

A company has equity worth €8 000 000 and debt worth €1 000 000. Its cost of equity is 8%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.

E = €8 000 000D = €1 000 000re = 8%rd = 4%T = 21%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity4 000 000 × €54.50D0​ = €2.90g = 2%debt€109 000 000rd​ = 3%T = 21%

A company has 4 000 000 shares trading at €54.50; the book value of its equity is €65 400 000. It just paid a dividend of €2.90 per share, and dividends grow by 2% per year. Its debt has a market value of €109 000 000 and a pre-tax cost of 3%. The tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 4 000 000P0 = €54.50book equity = €65 400 000D0 = €2.90g = 2%D = €109 000 000rd = 3%T = 21%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost5000

A company sells 5 000 units at €28 each. The variable cost is €8 per unit and fixed costs are €40 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 5 000p = €28v = €8F = €40 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €9 per unit, with a variable cost of €4 per unit and fixed costs of €5 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 1 600 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €5 000p = €9v = €4budget = 1 600
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 2228 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = r/m = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = m·n = 12·3 = 36

Future value

FV = 2 000·(1 + 0.003)36 = 2 000·1.114 = €2 227.74

Answer

FV = €2 227.74
2.Time value of money

Answer: N = 58 payments

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rearrange the annuity formula

i = 0.0025
(1 + i)−N = 1 − 8 000·0.0025/150 = 0.8667

Solve with logarithms

N = −ln(0.8667)/ln(1.002) = 57.31

Round up to whole payments

57 full payments leave a small balance, which the last, smaller payment clears.

N = 58

Answer

N = 58 payments
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: EAC = 9630 €

Equivalent annual cost: spread the present value of all costs over the life as an equal yearly amount (an annuity): EAC = PV·r/(1 − (1 + r)⁻ⁿ). It lets you compare machines with different lives.

Annuity factor

(1 − 1.12−9)/0.12 = 5.328

Annualised purchase price

30 000/5.328 = 5 630.37

EAC

EAC = 5 630.37 + 4 000 = €9 630.37

Answer

EAC = €9 630.37
4.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −29644 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of the growing annuity

((1.04)/(1.1))7 = 0.6753
PV = 13 000/(0.1 − 0.04)·(1 − 0.6753) = 70 355.77

NPV

NPV = 70 355.77 − 100 000 = −€29 644.23

Answer

NPV = −€29 644.23

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1057 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €22.50, i = 0.0125, N = 6

Present value of the coupons

€22.50·(1 − 0.9282)/0.0125 = €129.29

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.9282 = €928.17

Price

P = €1 057.46

Answer

P = €1 057.46

The yield is below the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a premium.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 4.01 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €15.00, N = 8

Solve numerically

i = 2.005% per half-year

YTM

YTM = 2·2.005% = 4.01%

Answer

YTM = 4.01%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.462 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €9 000 000, E/V = 0.8889, D/V = 0.1111

WACC

WACC = 0.8889·8% + 0.1111·4%·(1 − 0.21) = 7.462%

Answer

WACC = 7.462%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 5.742 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 2.9·1.02 = €2.96
re = 2.958/54.5 + 0.02 = 7.428%

Market values

E = 4 000 000·€54.50 = €218 000 000
V = €327 000 000, E/V = 0.6667, D/V = 0.3333

WACC

WACC = 0.6667·7.428% + 0.3333·3%·(1 − 0.21) = 5.742%

Answer

WACC = 5.742%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 1.667

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 5 000·(28 − 8) = €100 000

Operating profit

Π = 100 000 − 40 000 = €60 000

DOL

DOL = 100 000/60 000 = 1.667

Answer

DOL = 1.667
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 37.5 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 5 000/5 = 1 000

Margin of safety

MS = (1 600 − 1 000)/1 600·100 = 37.5%

Answer

MS = 37.5%

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