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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €20 000 at 2% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 17 years.
PV = €20 000r = 2%t = 17
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
A loan of €8 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 4 years. The interest rate is 4.2% per year, compounded monthly. Find the monthly payment A.
P = €8 0004.2% / 12N = 48
A = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €30 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €13 000, €9 000, €13 000, €10 000. The cost of capital is 5%. Find the net present value NPV.
An investment of €50 000 returns €8 500 at the end of each year for 8 years. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
C0 = €50 000CF = €8 500n = 8
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 7% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 9 years. The yield to maturity is 3.5% per year. Find the price P of the bond.
F = €1 000coupon = 7%YTM = 3.5%n = 9
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond trades at €1 020 with a yield to maturity of 5% (annual compounding) and a Macaulay duration of 9.2 years. Use the modified duration to estimate the new price P if the yield falls by 150 basis points.
P0 = €1 020y = 5%D = 9.2Δy = −150 bp
P = €
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €6 000 000 and debt worth €1 000 000. Its cost of equity is 9%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3% and the tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC.
A company's business has an unlevered (asset) beta of 1.2. It plans a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.6. The tax rate is 25.8%, the risk-free rate is 1% and the market risk premium is 6%. Find the cost of equity re at the new capital structure.
βU = 1.2D/E = 0.6T = 25.8%rf = 1%rm − rf = 6%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A product sells for €40 per unit with a variable cost of €30 per unit. Fixed costs are €10 000 per month. How many units Q must be sold per month to make a profit of €2 000?
F = €10 000p = €40v = €30profit = €2 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells two products. Product A sells for €9 with a variable cost of €5; product B sells for €40 with a variable cost of €20. They sell in a fixed mix of 3 units of A for every 2 of B. Fixed costs are €31 200 per month. Find the total number of units Q (A and B together) needed to break even.
pA = €9, vA = €5pB = €40, vB = €20A : B = 3 : 2F = €31 200
Q = units
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 28099 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Exponent
r·t = 0.02·17 = 0.34
e0.34 = 1.405
Future value
FV = 20 000·1.405 = €28 098.95
Answer
FV = €28 098.95
2.Time value of money
Answer: A = 181.3 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Monthly rate and number of payments
i = 0.042/12 = 0.0035
N = 12·4 = 48
Payment
The present value of N equal payments A is A·(1 − (1 + i)⁻ᴺ)/i. Set it equal to the loan and solve for A.
(1 + i)−N = 0.8456
A = 8 000·0.0035/(1 − 0.8456) = €181.35
Answer
A = €181.35
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 10001 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −30 000
CF1/(1 + 0.05)1 = 13 000/1.05 = 12 380.95
CF2/(1 + 0.05)2 = 9 000/1.103 = 8 163.27
CF3/(1 + 0.05)3 = 13 000/1.158 = 11 229.89
CF4/(1 + 0.05)4 = 10 000/1.216 = 8 227.02
Add them up
NPV = €10 001.13
Answer
NPV = €10 001.13
NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 7.389 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Required annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−8)/i = 50 000/8 500 = 5.882
Solve for the rate
The annuity factor falls as the rate rises; bracket the rate and narrow down.
i = 7%: 5.971
i = 8%: 5.747
IRR = 7.389%
Answer
IRR = 7.389%
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: P = 1268 €
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Per period
C = €35.00, i = 0.0175, N = 18
Present value of the coupons
€35.00·(1 − 0.7318)/0.0175 = €536.44
Present value of the face value
€1 000·0.7318 = €731.78
Price
P = €1 268.22
Answer
P = €1 268.22
The yield is below the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a premium.
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: P = 1154 €
Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.
Modified duration
Dmod = 9.2/1.05 = 8.762
Estimated price change
%ΔP ≈ −8.762·(−0.015) = 13.14%
P ≈ 1020·(1 + 0.1314) = €1 154.06
Answer
P = €1 154.06
Duration is a linear estimate; for large yield changes convexity makes the true price a little higher.
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 8.032 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €7 000 000, E/V = 0.8571, D/V = 0.1429
WACC
WACC = 0.8571·9% + 0.1429·3%·(1 − 0.258) = 8.032%
Answer
WACC = 8.032%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: re = 11.41 %
Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.
Levered beta
βL = 1.2·(1 + 0.742·0.6) = 1.734
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 1% + 1.734·6% = 11.41%
Answer
re = 11.41%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: Q = 1200 units
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Break-even with a sales mix: when products sell in a fixed ratio, use the weighted average contribution margin: weight each product's p − v by its share of units. Break-even units = F/(weighted contribution margin), split again in the mix ratio.