Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…16€1 000FV = ?

You invest €1 000 at 5% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 16 years.

PV = €1 000r = 5%t = 16
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…180€200 000AAAA4.2% / 12, I = ?

A loan of €200 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 15 years at 4.2% per year, compounded monthly. How much interest I is paid in total over the life of the loan?

P = €200 0004.2% / 12N = 180
I = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−40 00010 50010 50010 50010 50010 50010 500

A project costs €40 000 today and returns €10 500 at the end of each year for 6 years. The cost of capital is 8%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 8%CF0 = −40 000CF1 = 10 500CF2 = 10 500CF3 = 10 500CF4 = 10 500CF5 = 10 500CF6 = 10 500
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−50 00036 50031 000

A project costs €50 000 and returns €36 500, €31 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 36 500CF2 = 31 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…12€20€20€20 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 6 years. The yield to maturity is 7% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 4%YTM = 7%n = 6
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard

A bond trades at €1 070 with a yield to maturity of 5% (annual compounding) and a Macaulay duration of 5.6 years. Use the modified duration to estimate the new price P if the yield falls by 75 basis points.

P0 = €1 070y = 5%D = 5.6Δy = −75 bp
P = €
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?ordinary shares€4 000 000re​ = 12%preferred shares€500 000rp​ = 6%debt€3 000 000rd​ = 4.5%T = 25%

A company is financed with ordinary shares worth €4 000 000, preferred shares worth €500 000 and debt worth €3 000 000. The cost of equity is 12%, the cost of preferred stock 6% and the pre-tax cost of debt 4.5%. The tax rate is 25%. Find the WACC.

E = €4 000 000Ps = €500 000D = €3 000 000re = 12%rp = 6%rd = 4.5%T = 25%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity4 000 000 × €59.50β = 1.1rf​ = 3%, rm​ = 8%debt20 000 × €980rd​ = 6%T = 28%

A company has 4 000 000 shares at €59.50 each and 20 000 bonds trading at €980 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 6% and the tax rate is 28%. The share’s beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate 3% and the market return 8%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.1rf = 3%rm = 8%rd = 6%T = 28%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €9 per unit with a variable cost of €6 per unit. Fixed costs are €6 000 per month. How many units Q must be sold per month to make a profit of €6 000?

F = €6 000p = €9v = €6profit = €6 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
F = €20 800, Q = ?sales mix3 × Ap = €19v = €152 × Bp = €35v = €15

A company sells two products. Product A sells for €19 with a variable cost of €15; product B sells for €35 with a variable cost of €15. They sell in a fixed mix of 3 units of A for every 2 of B. Fixed costs are €20 800 per month. Find the total number of units Q (A and B together) needed to break even.

pA = €19, vA = €15pB = €35, vB = €15A : B = 3 : 2F = €20 800
Q = units

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 2226 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Exponent

r·t = 0.05·16 = 0.8
e0.8 = 2.226

Future value

FV = 1 000·2.226 = €2 225.54

Answer

FV = €2 225.54
2.Time value of money

Answer: I = 69910 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.0035, N = 180
A = 200 000·0.0035/(1 − (1 + 0.0035)−180) = €1 499.50

Total interest

I = N·A − P = 180·1500 − 200 000 = €69 910.12

Answer

I = €69 910.12
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 4.731 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 10 500/1.08 = 9 722.22 → Σ = 9 722.22
year 2: 10 500/1.166 = 9 002.06 → Σ = 18 724.28
year 3: 10 500/1.26 = 8 335.24 → Σ = 27 059.52
year 4: 10 500/1.36 = 7 717.81 → Σ = 34 777.33
year 5: 10 500/1.469 = 7 146.12 → Σ = 41 923.46

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 4 + 5 222.67/7 146.12 = 4.731

Answer

DPB = 4.731 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.81 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 23.29 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(20%) = 1 944.44
NPV(25%) = −960.00

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 20 + 5·1 944.44/(1 944.44 − (−960.00)) = 23.35%
exact: NPV(23.29%) = 0 → IRR = 23.29%

Answer

IRR = 23.29%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 855 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €20.00, i = 0.035, N = 12

Present value of the coupons

€20.00·(1 − 0.6618)/0.035 = €193.27

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.6618 = €661.78

Price

P = €855.05

Answer

P = €855.05

The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1113 €

Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.

Modified duration

Dmod = 5.6/1.05 = 5.333

Estimated price change

%ΔP ≈ −5.333·(−0.0075) = 4%
P ≈ 1070·(1 + 0.04) = €1 112.80

Answer

P = €1 112.80

Duration is a linear estimate; for large yield changes convexity makes the true price a little higher.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 8.15 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = 4 000 000 + 500 000 + 3 000 000 = €7 500 000
E/V = 0.5333, Ps/V = 0.06667, D/V = 0.4

WACC

WACC = 0.5333·12% + 0.06667·6% + 0.4·4.5%·(1 − 0.25) = 8.15%

Answer

WACC = 8.15%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 8.182 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 4 000 000·€59.50 = €238 000 000
D = 20 000·€980 = €19 600 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 3% + 1.1·5% = 8.5%

Weights

V = €257 600 000, E/V = 0.9239, D/V = 0.07609

WACC

WACC = 0.9239·8.5% + 0.07609·6%·(1 − 0.28) = 8.182%

Answer

WACC = 8.182%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 4000 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Contribution margin per unit

p − v = 9 − 6 = €3

Units for the target profit

Q = (F + profit)/(p − v) = (6 000 + 6 000)/3 = 4 000

Answer

Q = 4 000 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 2000 units

Break-even with a sales mix: when products sell in a fixed ratio, use the weighted average contribution margin: weight each product's p − v by its share of units. Break-even units = F/(weighted contribution margin), split again in the mix ratio.

Contribution margins

cmA = €4, cmB = €20

Weighted contribution margin

(3·4 + 2·20)/5 = €10.40

Break-even units

Q = 20 800/10.4 = 2 000
A: 1 200, B: 800

Answer

Q = 2 000 units

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