Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…9PV = ?€12 000+1%+1%…r = 6%

A property is expected to earn net rent of €12 000 next year. The rent is expected to grow by 1% per year forever. The required return is 6% per year. Find the value PV of the property today.

C1 = €12 000g = 1%r = 6%
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…72€15 000A?AAA

A loan of €15 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 6 years. The interest rate is 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. Find the monthly payment A.

P = €15 0003.6% / 12N = 72
A = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−50 0008 5008 5008 5008 5008 50018 500

A machine costs €50 000 today. It generates €8 500 at the end of each year for 6 years and can then be sold for €10 000. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €50 000CF = €8 500S = €10 000n = 6r = 10%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
r (%)NPVABr* = ?0

Project A costs €20 000 and returns €11 500, €8 000, €4 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €25 000 and returns €6 500, €10 500, €14 000. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.

A: −20 000, 11 500, 8 000, 4 500B: −25 000, 6 500, 10 500, 14 000
r* = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…12€25€25€25 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 5% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 6 years. The yield to maturity is 3% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 5%YTM = 3%n = 6
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
half-years0123…14€1 113€40€40€40 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an 8% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 7 years. It sells for €1 113. Find its yield to maturity YTM as an annual rate (twice the half-yearly yield), in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 8% (2×)n = 7P = €1 113
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?ordinary shares€8 000 000re​ = 14%preferred shares€2 000 000rp​ = 6.5%debt€4 000 000rd​ = 4.5%T = 21%

A company is financed with ordinary shares worth €8 000 000, preferred shares worth €2 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. The cost of equity is 14%, the cost of preferred stock 6.5% and the pre-tax cost of debt 4.5%. The tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.

E = €8 000 000Ps = €2 000 000D = €4 000 000re = 14%rp = 6.5%rd = 4.5%T = 21%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity5 000 000 × €28.00β = 1.3rf​ = 2.5%, rm​ = 7.5%debt20 000 × €1 000rd​ = 3.5%T = 30%

A company has 5 000 000 shares at €28.00 each and 20 000 bonds trading at €1 000 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 3.5% and the tax rate is 30%. The share’s beta is 1.3, the risk-free rate 2.5% and the market return 7.5%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.3rf = 2.5%rm = 7.5%rd = 3.5%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost3000

A company sells 3 000 units at €12 each. The variable cost is €8 per unit and fixed costs are €10 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 3 000p = €12v = €8F = €10 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost750+20%%ΔΠ = ?

A company sells 750 units at €30 each, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €7 500. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 20%?

Q = 750p = €30v = €15F = €7 500%ΔQ = +20%
%ΔΠ = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 240000 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Growing perpetuity

PV = C1/(r − g) = 12 000/(0.06 − 0.01) = 12 000/0.05 = €240 000.00

Answer

PV = €240 000.00
2.Time value of money

Answer: A = 232 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of payments

i = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = 12·6 = 72

Payment

The present value of N equal payments A is A·(1 − (1 + i)⁻ᴺ)/i. Set it equal to the loan and solve for A.

(1 + i)−N = 0.806
A = 15 000·0.003/(1 − 0.806) = €231.95

Answer

A = €231.95
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −7336 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of the yearly cash flows

8 500·4.355 = 37 019.72

Present value of the salvage value

10 000/1.772 = 5 644.74

NPV

NPV = −50 000 + 37 019.72 + 5 644.74 = −€7 335.54

Answer

NPV = −€7 335.54
4.NPV & IRR

Answer: r* = 8.269 %

Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.

Difference in cash flows

ΔCF0 = −25 000 − (−20 000) = −5 000
ΔCF1 = 6 500 − 11 500 = −5 000
ΔCF2 = 10 500 − 8 000 = 2 500
ΔCF3 = 14 000 − 4 500 = 9 500

IRR of the difference

NPVΔ(8%) = 55.12
NPVΔ(9%) = −147.21
r* = 8.269%

Answer

r* = 8.269%

Check: at 8.269% both NPVs are €992.18.

5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1109 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €25.00, i = 0.015, N = 12

Present value of the coupons

€25.00·(1 − 0.8364)/0.015 = €272.69

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.8364 = €836.39

Price

P = €1 109.08

Answer

P = €1 109.08

The yield is below the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a premium.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 5.999 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €40.00, N = 14

Solve numerically

i = 3% per half-year

YTM

YTM = 2·3% = 5.999%

Answer

YTM = 5.999%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 9.944 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = 8 000 000 + 2 000 000 + 4 000 000 = €14 000 000
E/V = 0.5714, Ps/V = 0.1429, D/V = 0.2857

WACC

WACC = 0.5714·14% + 0.1429·6.5% + 0.2857·4.5%·(1 − 0.21) = 9.944%

Answer

WACC = 9.944%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 8.181 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 5 000 000·€28.00 = €140 000 000
D = 20 000·€1 000 = €20 000 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2.5% + 1.3·5% = 9%

Weights

V = €160 000 000, E/V = 0.875, D/V = 0.125

WACC

WACC = 0.875·9% + 0.125·3.5%·(1 − 0.3) = 8.181%

Answer

WACC = 8.181%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 6

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 3 000·(12 − 8) = €12 000

Operating profit

Π = 12 000 − 10 000 = €2 000

DOL

DOL = 12 000/2 000 = 6

Answer

DOL = 6
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: %ΔΠ = 60 %

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Contribution margin and profit

CM = 750·15 = €11 250
Π = 11 250 − 7 500 = €3 750

DOL

DOL = 11 250/3 750 = 3

Change in profit

%ΔΠ = 3·(+20%) = +60%

Answer

%ΔΠ = +60%

Check: new profit = 900·15 − 7 500 = €6 000.00.

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