Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…9PV = ?€6 000+4%+4%…r = 9%

A property is expected to earn net rent of €6 000 next year. The rent is expected to grow by 4% per year forever. The required return is 9% per year. Find the value PV of the property today.

C1 = €6 000g = 4%r = 9%
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…216€200€200€200FV = ?

You save €200 at the end of every month for 18 years. The account pays 4.8% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.

A = €2004.8% / 12N = 216
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−40 00012 00012 50016 00015 50014 00014 500

A project costs €40 000 today and returns €12 000, €12 500, €16 000, €15 500, €14 000, €14 500 at the end of years 1 to 6. The cost of capital is 8%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 8%CF0 = −40 000CF1 = 12 000CF2 = 12 500CF3 = 16 000CF4 = 15 500CF5 = 14 000CF6 = 14 500
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−10 0006 5006 500

A project costs €10 000 and returns €6 500, €6 500 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −10 000CF1 = 6 500CF2 = 6 500
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123…15€948C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 15 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €948 when the yield to maturity is 5%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 15P = €948YTM = 5%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years01234P€45€45€45 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 4.5% and matures in 4 years. The yield to maturity is 7%. Find the Macaulay duration D in years.

F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%n = 4YTM = 7%
D = years
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€6 000 000re​ = 10%debt€4 000 000rd​ = 5%T = 28%

A company has equity worth €6 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 5% and the tax rate is 28%. Find the WACC.

E = €6 000 000D = €4 000 000re = 10%rd = 5%T = 28%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity2 000 000 × €54.00D0​ = €2.80g = 2%debt€32 400 000rd​ = 3%T = 21%

A company has 2 000 000 shares trading at €54.00; the book value of its equity is €64 800 000. It just paid a dividend of €2.80 per share, and dividends grow by 2% per year. Its debt has a market value of €32 400 000 and a pre-tax cost of 3%. The tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 2 000 000P0 = €54.00book equity = €64 800 000D0 = €2.80g = 2%D = €32 400 000rd = 3%T = 21%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€ABQ = ?

A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €20 000 per year and a variable cost of €18 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €40 000 per year and a variable cost of €13 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?

FA = €20 000vA = €18FB = €40 000vB = €13
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €38 per unit, with a variable cost of €18 per unit and fixed costs of €80 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 7 200 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €80 000p = €38v = €18budget = 7 200
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 120000 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Growing perpetuity

PV = C1/(r − g) = 6 000/(0.09 − 0.04) = 6 000/0.05 = €120 000.00

Answer

PV = €120 000.00
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 68427 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of deposits

i = 0.048/12 = 0.004
N = 12·18 = 216

Future value of the deposits

FV = A·((1 + i)N − 1)/i = 200·(2.369 − 1)/0.004 = €68 427.34

Answer

FV = €68 427.34

You paid in €43 200 yourself; the rest is interest.

3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 3.48 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 12 000/1.08 = 11 111.11 → Σ = 11 111.11
year 2: 12 500/1.166 = 10 716.74 → Σ = 21 827.85
year 3: 16 000/1.26 = 12 701.32 → Σ = 34 529.16
year 4: 15 500/1.36 = 11 392.96 → Σ = 45 922.12

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 3 + 5 470.84/11 392.96 = 3.48

Answer

DPB = 3.48 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (2.969 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 19.43 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(15%) = 567.11
NPV(20%) = −69.44

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 15 + 5·567.11/(567.11 − (−69.44)) = 19.45%
exact: NPV(19.43%) = 0 → IRR = 19.43%

Answer

IRR = 19.43%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 4.499 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.05)−15 = €481.02

Coupon

C = (948 − 481.02)/10.38 = €44.99

Coupon rate

c = 44.99/1000 = 4.499%

Answer

c = 4.499%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: D = 3.736 years

Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.

Present value of each cash flow

t = 1: 45/1.07 = 42.06, t·PV = 42.06
t = 2: 45/1.145 = 39.30, t·PV = 78.61
t = 3: 45/1.225 = 36.73, t·PV = 110.20
t = 4: 1045/1.311 = 797.23, t·PV = 3 188.90

Duration

P = 915.32
D = 3 419.77/915.32 = 3.736

Answer

D = 3.736 years
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.44 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €10 000 000, E/V = 0.6, D/V = 0.4

WACC

WACC = 0.6·10% + 0.4·5%·(1 − 0.28) = 7.44%

Answer

WACC = 7.44%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6.154 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 2.8·1.02 = €2.86
re = 2.856/54 + 0.02 = 7.289%

Market values

E = 2 000 000·€54.00 = €108 000 000
V = €140 400 000, E/V = 0.7692, D/V = 0.2308

WACC

WACC = 0.7692·7.289% + 0.2308·3%·(1 − 0.21) = 6.154%

Answer

WACC = 6.154%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 4000 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Equal total costs

20 000 + 18Q = 40 000 + 13Q

Solve for Q

Q = (40 000 − 20 000)/(18 − 13) = 4 000

Answer

Q = 4 000 units

Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.

10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 44.44 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 80 000/20 = 4 000

Margin of safety

MS = (7 200 − 4 000)/7 200·100 = 44.44%

Answer

MS = 44.44%

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