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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
A property is expected to earn net rent of €20 000 next year. The rent is expected to grow by 1.5% per year forever. The required return is 3.5% per year. Find the value PV of the property today.
C1 = €20 000g = 1.5%r = 3.5%
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You deposit €6 000 at the start of every year for 27 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 4% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 27? Find FV.
A = €6 000i = 4%n = 27
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €75 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €20 000, €28 000, €23 000, €26 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €25 000 and returns €9 500, €14 500, €11 000, €8 000 at the end of years 1 to 4. Cash flows can be reinvested at the cost of capital of 12%. Find the modified internal rate of return MIRR in percent.
You buy a bond with 11 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 4%) when its yield to maturity is 9%. One year later, just after receiving the first coupon, you sell it when the yield to maturity is 9.5%. Find your holding period return HPR in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 4%n = 11y0 = 9%y1 = 9.5%
HPR = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 5% and matures in 6 years. The yield to maturity is 9%. Find the Macaulay duration D in years.
F = €1 000coupon = 5%n = 6YTM = 9%
D = years
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €10 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC.
A company's business has an unlevered (asset) beta of 1.2. It plans a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.5. The tax rate is 25.8%, the risk-free rate is 4% and the market risk premium is 6%. Find the cost of equity re at the new capital structure.
βU = 1.2D/E = 0.5T = 25.8%rf = 4%rm − rf = 6%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €10 000 per year and a variable cost of €8 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €14 500 per year and a variable cost of €5 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?
FA = €10 000vA = €8FB = €14 500vB = €5
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells two products. Product A sells for €19 with a variable cost of €15; product B sells for €25 with a variable cost of €10. They sell in a fixed mix of 3 units of A for every 2 of B. Fixed costs are €25 200 per month. Find the total number of units Q (A and B together) needed to break even.
pA = €19, vA = €15pB = €25, vB = €10A : B = 3 : 2F = €25 200
Q = units
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 1 × 10⁶ €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Ordinary annuity factor
((1 + 0.04)27 − 1)/0.04 = 47.08
Annuity due
Each deposit is invested one year longer.
FV = 6 000·47.08·1.04 = €293 805.50
Answer
FV = €293 805.50
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −6448 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −75 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 20 000/1.15 = 17 391.30
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 28 000/1.322 = 21 172.02
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 23 000/1.521 = 15 122.87
CF4/(1 + 0.15)4 = 26 000/1.749 = 14 865.58
Add them up
NPV = €−6 448.22
Answer
NPV = €−6 448.22
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: MIRR = 20.01 %
Modified IRR: compound every inflow forward to the end of the project at the reinvestment rate (usually the cost of capital) to get the terminal value TV. MIRR is the rate that turns the initial investment into TV: MIRR = (TV/C₀)^(1/n) − 1.
Terminal value of the inflows
9 500·1.123 = 13 346.82
14 500·1.122 = 18 188.80
11 000·1.121 = 12 320.00
8 000·1.120 = 8 000.00
TV = 51 855.62
MIRR
MIRR = (51 855.62/25 000)1/4 − 1 = 20.01%
Answer
MIRR = 20.01%
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: HPR = 5.294 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.
Present value of each cash flow
t = 1: 50/1.09 = 45.87, t·PV = 45.87
t = 2: 50/1.188 = 42.08, t·PV = 84.17
t = 3: 50/1.295 = 38.61, t·PV = 115.83
t = 4: 50/1.412 = 35.42, t·PV = 141.69
t = 5: 50/1.539 = 32.50, t·PV = 162.48
t = 6: 1050/1.677 = 626.08, t·PV = 3 756.48
Duration
P = 820.56
D = 4 306.52/820.56 = 5.248
Answer
D = 5.248 years
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 7.943 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €14 000 000, E/V = 0.7143, D/V = 0.2857
WACC
WACC = 0.7143·10% + 0.2857·4%·(1 − 0.3) = 7.943%
Answer
WACC = 7.943%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: re = 13.87 %
Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.
Levered beta
βL = 1.2·(1 + 0.742·0.5) = 1.645
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 4% + 1.645·6% = 13.87%
Answer
re = 13.87%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: Q = 1500 units
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Equal total costs
10 000 + 8Q = 14 500 + 5Q
Solve for Q
Q = (14 500 − 10 000)/(8 − 5) = 1 500
Answer
Q = 1 500 units
Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: Q = 3000 units
Break-even with a sales mix: when products sell in a fixed ratio, use the weighted average contribution margin: weight each product's p − v by its share of units. Break-even units = F/(weighted contribution margin), split again in the mix ratio.