Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years01234€12 000FV = ?

You invest €12 000 at a nominal rate of 6% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 4 years.

PV = €12 0006% / 12n = 4
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
years0123…20€3 000€3 000€3 000FV = ?

You deposit €3 000 at the start of every year for 20 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 4% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 20? Find FV.

A = €3 000i = 4%n = 20
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−20 0008 5004 5008 0008 0006 0005 500

A project costs €20 000 today and returns €8 500, €4 500, €8 000, €8 000, €6 000, €5 500 at the end of years 1 to 6. The cost of capital is 12%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 12%CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 8 500CF2 = 4 500CF3 = 8 000CF4 = 8 000CF5 = 6 000CF6 = 5 500
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−50 00028 00030 50019 500

A project costs €50 000 and returns €28 000, €30 500, €19 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 28 000CF2 = 30 500CF3 = 19 500
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…8€22.50€22.50€22.50 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4.5% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 4 years. The yield to maturity is 2.5% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%YTM = 2.5%n = 4
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123€1 108€80€80€80 + €1 080

A bond with 10 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 8%) sells for €1 108. The issuer can call it in 3 years at a call price of €1 080. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 8%P = €1 108call price = €1 080call in 3 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€10 000 000re​ = 14%debt€3 000 000rd​ = 3.5%T = 25%

A company has equity worth €10 000 000 and debt worth €3 000 000. Its cost of equity is 14%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3.5% and the tax rate is 25%. Find the WACC.

E = €10 000 000D = €3 000 000re = 14%rd = 3.5%T = 25%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity€15 000 000re​ = 11%bonds4 000 × €1 025coupon 6%, n = 6T = 21%

A company has equity with a market value of €15 000 000 and a cost of equity of 11%. Its debt consists of 4 000 bonds (face value €1 000, annual coupon 6%, 6 years to maturity) that trade at €1 025 each. The tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC, using the yield to maturity of the bonds as the pre-tax cost of debt.

E = €15 000 000re = 11%bonds: 4 000 × €1 025coupon = 6%n = 6T = 21%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost10000

A company sells 10 000 units at €33 each. The variable cost is €30 per unit and fixed costs are €15 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 10 000p = €33v = €30F = €15 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €14 per unit, with a variable cost of €12 per unit and fixed costs of €1 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 750 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €1 000p = €14v = €12budget = 750
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 15246 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = r/m = 0.06/12 = 0.005
N = m·n = 12·4 = 48

Future value

FV = 12 000·(1 + 0.005)48 = 12 000·1.27 = €15 245.87

Answer

FV = €15 245.87
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 92908 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Ordinary annuity factor

((1 + 0.04)20 − 1)/0.04 = 29.78

Annuity due

Each deposit is invested one year longer.

FV = 3 000·29.78·1.04 = €92 907.61

Answer

FV = €92 907.61
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 3.615 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 8 500/1.12 = 7 589.29 → Σ = 7 589.29
year 2: 4 500/1.254 = 3 587.37 → Σ = 11 176.66
year 3: 8 000/1.405 = 5 694.24 → Σ = 16 870.90
year 4: 8 000/1.574 = 5 084.14 → Σ = 21 955.04

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 3 + 3 129.10/5 084.14 = 3.615

Answer

DPB = 3.615 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (2.875 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 27.69 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(25%) = 1 904.00
NPV(30%) = −1 538.46

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 25 + 5·1 904.00/(1 904.00 − (−1 538.46)) = 27.77%
exact: NPV(27.69%) = 0 → IRR = 27.69%

Answer

IRR = 27.69%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1076 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €22.50, i = 0.0125, N = 8

Present value of the coupons

€22.50·(1 − 0.9054)/0.0125 = €170.28

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.9054 = €905.40

Price

P = €1 075.68

Answer

P = €1 075.68

The yield is below the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a premium.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTC = 6.43 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

1108 = 80·(1 − (1 + y)−3)/y + 1080/(1 + y)3

Solve numerically

y = 6%: €1 120.63
y = 7%: €1 091.55
YTC = 6.43%

Answer

YTC = 6.43%

The yield to maturity is 6.498%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 11.38 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €13 000 000, E/V = 0.7692, D/V = 0.2308

WACC

WACC = 0.7692·14% + 0.2308·3.5%·(1 − 0.25) = 11.38%

Answer

WACC = 11.38%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 9.571 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of debt (YTM)

1025 = 60·(1 − (1 + y)−6)/y + 1000/(1 + y)6
y = 5.5%

Market values

D = 4 000·€1 025 = €4 100 000
V = €19 100 000, E/V = 0.7853, D/V = 0.2147

WACC

WACC = 0.7853·11% + 0.2147·5.5%·(1 − 0.21) = 9.571%

Answer

WACC = 9.571%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 2

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 10 000·(33 − 30) = €30 000

Operating profit

Π = 30 000 − 15 000 = €15 000

DOL

DOL = 30 000/15 000 = 2

Answer

DOL = 2
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 33.33 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 1 000/2 = 500

Margin of safety

MS = (750 − 500)/750·100 = 33.33%

Answer

MS = 33.33%

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/corporate-finance