Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…10PV = ?€1 000€1 000€1 000€1 000

An annuity pays €1 000 at the end of each year for 10 years. The interest rate is 4% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.

A = €1 000i = 4%n = 10
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…120€500€500€500FV = ?

You save €500 at the end of every month for 10 years. The account pays 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.

A = €5003.6% / 12N = 120
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123−75 00030 00034 00017 000

An investment of €75 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €30 000, €34 000, €17 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 15%CF0 = −75 000CF1 = 30 000CF2 = 34 000CF3 = 17 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
r (%)NPVABr* = ?0

Project A costs €40 000 and returns €22 500, €15 000, €9 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €45 000 and returns €11 500, €19 000, €23 500. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.

A: −40 000, 22 500, 15 000, 9 000B: −45 000, 11 500, 19 000, 23 500
r* = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123…9€962C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 9 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €962 when the yield to maturity is 3.5%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 9P = €962YTM = 3.5%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123…9€905€60€60 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 6% matures in 9 years and sells for €905. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 6%n = 9P = €905
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = 8.19%equity€3 000 000re​ = ?debt€3 000 000rd​ = 3%T = 21%

A company has equity worth €3 000 000 and debt worth €3 000 000. Its WACC is 8.19%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the cost of equity re.

E = €3 000 000D = €3 000 000WACC = 8.19%rd = 3%T = 21%
re = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity1 000 000 × €55.00D0​ = €1.40g = 5%debt€44 000 000rd​ = 4%T = 28%

A company has 1 000 000 shares trading at €55.00; the book value of its equity is €22 000 000. It just paid a dividend of €1.40 per share, and dividends grow by 5% per year. Its debt has a market value of €44 000 000 and a pre-tax cost of 4%. The tax rate is 28%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 1 000 000P0 = €55.00book equity = €22 000 000D0 = €1.40g = 5%D = €44 000 000rd = 4%T = 28%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€ABQ = ?

A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €20 000 per year and a variable cost of €12 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €35 000 per year and a variable cost of €6 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?

FA = €20 000vA = €12FB = €35 000vB = €6
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €34 per unit, with a variable cost of €30 per unit and fixed costs of €20 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 6 000 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €20 000p = €34v = €30budget = 6 000
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 8111 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Annuity factor

(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.6756)/0.04 = 8.111

Present value

PV = 1 000·8.111 = €8 110.90

Answer

PV = €8 110.90
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 72093 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of deposits

i = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = 12·10 = 120

Future value of the deposits

FV = A·((1 + i)N − 1)/i = 500·(1.433 − 1)/0.003 = €72 092.86

Answer

FV = €72 092.86

You paid in €60 000 yourself; the rest is interest.

3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −12026 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −75 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 30 000/1.15 = 26 086.96
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 34 000/1.322 = 25 708.88
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 17 000/1.521 = 11 177.78

Add them up

NPV = €−12 026.38

Answer

NPV = €−12 026.38

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: r* = 7.166 %

Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.

Difference in cash flows

ΔCF0 = −45 000 − (−40 000) = −5 000
ΔCF1 = 11 500 − 22 500 = −11 000
ΔCF2 = 19 000 − 15 000 = 4 000
ΔCF3 = 23 500 − 9 000 = 14 500

IRR of the difference

NPVΔ(7%) = 49.70
NPVΔ(8%) = −245.26
r* = 7.166%

Answer

r* = 7.166%

Check: at 7.166% both NPVs are €1 369.32.

5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 3.001 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.035)−9 = €733.73

Coupon

C = (962 − 733.73)/7.608 = €30.01

Coupon rate

c = 30.01/1000 = 3.001%

Answer

c = 3.001%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 7.489 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€905 = €60·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁹)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁹

Solve numerically

P(7%) = €934.85, P(8%) = €875.06
YTM = 7.489%

Answer

YTM = 7.489%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: re = 14.01 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €6 000 000, E/V = 0.5, D/V = 0.5

Debt part of the WACC

0.5·3%·(1 − 0.21) = 1.185%

Cost of equity

re = (8.19% − 1.185%)/0.5 = 14.01%

Answer

re = 14.01%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 5.543 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 1.4·1.05 = €1.47
re = 1.47/55 + 0.05 = 7.673%

Market values

E = 1 000 000·€55.00 = €55 000 000
V = €99 000 000, E/V = 0.5556, D/V = 0.4444

WACC

WACC = 0.5556·7.673% + 0.4444·4%·(1 − 0.28) = 5.543%

Answer

WACC = 5.543%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 2500 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Equal total costs

20 000 + 12Q = 35 000 + 6Q

Solve for Q

Q = (35 000 − 20 000)/(12 − 6) = 2 500

Answer

Q = 2 500 units

Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.

10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 16.67 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 20 000/4 = 5 000

Margin of safety

MS = (6 000 − 5 000)/6 000·100 = 16.67%

Answer

MS = 16.67%

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