Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123456PV = ?€15 000

You need €15 000 in 6 years. An account pays 3% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €15 0003% / 4n = 6
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…348€150€150€150FV = ?

You save €150 at the end of every month for 29 years. The account pays 6% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.

A = €1506% / 12N = 348
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−20 0008 0005 0008 0005 000

An investment of €20 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €8 000, €5 000, €8 000, €5 000. The cost of capital is 9%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 9%CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 8 000CF2 = 5 000CF3 = 8 000CF4 = 5 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−25 00018 00017 000

A project costs €25 000 and returns €18 000, €17 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −25 000CF1 = 18 000CF2 = 17 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123€1 071C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 3 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €1 071 when the yield to maturity is 2.5%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 3P = €1 071YTM = 2.5%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123456€895€80€80 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 8% matures in 6 years and sells for €895. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 8%n = 6P = €895
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€2 000 000re​ = 9%debt€4 000 000rd​ = 6%T = 21%

A company has equity worth €2 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 9%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 6% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.

E = €2 000 000D = €4 000 000re = 9%rd = 6%T = 21%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
rf​ = 2%, rm​ − rf​ = 7%no debtequityβU​ = 0.7D/E = 0.6equityre​ = ?debtT = 30%

A company's business has an unlevered (asset) beta of 0.7. It plans a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.6. The tax rate is 30%, the risk-free rate is 2% and the market risk premium is 7%. Find the cost of equity re at the new capital structure.

βU = 0.7D/E = 0.6T = 30%rf = 2%rm − rf = 7%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €18 per unit with a variable cost of €8 per unit. Fixed costs are €40 000 per month. How many units Q must be sold per month to make a profit of €6 000?

F = €40 000p = €18v = €8profit = €6 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost6 000−20%%ΔΠ = ?

A company sells 6 000 units at €33 each, with a variable cost of €30 per unit and fixed costs of €12 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume falls by 20%?

Q = 6 000p = €33v = €30F = €12 000%ΔQ = −20%
%ΔΠ = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 12537 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.03/4 = 0.0075
N = 4·6 = 24

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 15 000/1.196 = €12 537.47

Answer

PV = €12 537.47
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 140181 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of deposits

i = 0.06/12 = 0.005
N = 12·29 = 348

Future value of the deposits

FV = A·((1 + i)N − 1)/i = 150·(5.673 − 1)/0.005 = €140 180.87

Answer

FV = €140 180.87

You paid in €52 200 yourself; the rest is interest.

3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 1267 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −20 000
CF1/(1 + 0.09)1 = 8 000/1.09 = 7 339.45
CF2/(1 + 0.09)2 = 5 000/1.188 = 4 208.40
CF3/(1 + 0.09)3 = 8 000/1.295 = 6 177.47
CF4/(1 + 0.09)4 = 5 000/1.412 = 3 542.13

Add them up

NPV = €1 267.44

Answer

NPV = €1 267.44

NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 25.98 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(25%) = 280.00
NPV(30%) = −1 094.67

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 25 + 5·280.00/(280.00 − (−1 094.67)) = 26.02%
exact: NPV(25.98%) = 0 → IRR = 25.98%

Answer

IRR = 25.98%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 4.986 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.025)−3 = €928.60

Coupon

C = (1071 − 928.60)/2.856 = €49.86

Coupon rate

c = 49.86/1000 = 4.986%

Answer

c = 4.986%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 10.44 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€895 = €80·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁶)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁶

Solve numerically

P(10%) = €912.89, P(11%) = €873.08
YTM = 10.44%

Answer

YTM = 10.44%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6.16 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €6 000 000, E/V = 0.3333, D/V = 0.6667

WACC

WACC = 0.3333·9% + 0.6667·6%·(1 − 0.21) = 6.16%

Answer

WACC = 6.16%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: re = 8.958 %

Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.

Levered beta

βL = 0.7·(1 + 0.7·0.6) = 0.994

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2% + 0.994·7% = 8.958%

Answer

re = 8.958%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 4600 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Contribution margin per unit

p − v = 18 − 8 = €10

Units for the target profit

Q = (F + profit)/(p − v) = (40 000 + 6 000)/10 = 4 600

Answer

Q = 4 600 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: %ΔΠ = −60 %

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Contribution margin and profit

CM = 6 000·3 = €18 000
Π = 18 000 − 12 000 = €6 000

DOL

DOL = 18 000/6 000 = 3

Change in profit

%ΔΠ = 3·(−20%) = −60%

Answer

%ΔΠ = −60%

Check: new profit = 4 800·3 − 12 000 = €2 400.00.

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/corporate-finance