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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
A property is expected to earn net rent of €10 000 next year. The rent is expected to grow by 2.5% per year forever. The required return is 7.5% per year. Find the value PV of the property today.
C1 = €10 000g = 2.5%r = 7.5%
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You save €300 at the end of every month for 9 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €3002.4% / 12N = 108
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €40 000 today and returns €11 000 at the end of each year for 5 years. The cost of capital is 10%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
A project costs €20 000 and returns €9 500, €12 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 9 500CF2 = 12 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 9 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €1 040 when the yield to maturity is 2.5%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.
F = €1 000n = 9P = €1 040YTM = 2.5%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 6% matures in 4 years and sells for €920. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 6%n = 4P = €920
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €4 000 000 and debt worth €3 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC.
A company's shares have a beta of 1.1 at its current debt-to-equity ratio of 0.4. It plans to raise its debt-to-equity ratio to 0.75. The tax rate is 20%, the risk-free rate 4% and the market risk premium 4%. Find the cost of equity re after the change.
A company sells 1 250 units at €23 each. The variable cost is €8 per unit and fixed costs are €15 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 1 250p = €23v = €8F = €15 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells 3 200 units at €31 each, with a variable cost of €25 per unit and fixed costs of €12 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 15%?
Q = 3 200p = €31v = €25F = €12 000%ΔQ = +15%
%ΔΠ = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 200000 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €32 400 yourself; the rest is interest.
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 4.751 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 11 000/1.1 = 10 000.00 → Σ = 10 000.00
year 2: 11 000/1.21 = 9 090.91 → Σ = 19 090.91
year 3: 11 000/1.331 = 8 264.46 → Σ = 27 355.37
year 4: 11 000/1.464 = 7 513.15 → Σ = 34 868.52
year 5: 11 000/1.611 = 6 830.13 → Σ = 41 698.65
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 4 + 5 131.48/6 830.13 = 4.751
Answer
DPB = 4.751 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.636 years).
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 4.769 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(0%) = 1 500.00
NPV(5%) = −68.03
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Present value of the face value
1000·(1 + 0.025)−9 = €800.73
Coupon
C = (1040 − 800.73)/7.971 = €30.02
Coupon rate
c = 30.02/1000 = 3.002%
Answer
c = 3.002%
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: YTM = 8.439 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
€920 = €60·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁴)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁴
Solve numerically
P(8%) = €933.76, P(9%) = €902.81
YTM = 8.439%
Answer
YTM = 8.439%
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 6.914 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €7 000 000, E/V = 0.5714, D/V = 0.4286
WACC
WACC = 0.5714·10% + 0.4286·4%·(1 − 0.3) = 6.914%
Answer
WACC = 6.914%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: re = 9.333 %
Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.
Unlever the beta
βU = 1.1/(1 + 0.8·0.4) = 0.8333
Relever at the new D/E
βL = 0.8333·(1 + 0.8·0.75) = 1.333
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 4% + 1.333·4% = 9.333%
Answer
re = 9.333%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: DOL = 5
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 1 250·(23 − 8) = €18 750
Operating profit
Π = 18 750 − 15 000 = €3 750
DOL
DOL = 18 750/3 750 = 5
Answer
DOL = 5
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: %ΔΠ = 40 %
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.