Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…10€20 000FV = ?

You invest €20 000 at a nominal rate of 5% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 10 years.

PV = €20 0005% / 12n = 10
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months01…168…300€300 000AB = ?A4.2% / 12

A mortgage of €300 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 25 years at 4.2% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 14? Find the outstanding balance B.

P = €300 0004.2% / 12N = 300k = 168
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−45 0009 00012 00022 00022 000

An investment of €45 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €9 000, €12 000, €22 000, €22 000. The cost of capital is 6%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 6%CF0 = −45 000CF1 = 9 000CF2 = 12 000CF3 = 22 000CF4 = 22 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123456−20 0004 0004 0004 0004 0004 0004 000

An investment of €20 000 returns €4 000 at the end of each year for 6 years. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

C0 = €20 000CF = €4 000n = 6
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…14€20€20€20 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 7 years. The yield to maturity is 5% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 4%YTM = 5%n = 7
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard

A bond trades at €940 with a yield to maturity of 3% (annual compounding) and a Macaulay duration of 10.2 years. Use the modified duration to estimate the new price P if the yield falls by 75 basis points.

P0 = €940y = 3%D = 10.2Δy = −75 bp
P = €
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
βr (%)SMLrf​ = 1%β = 1rm​ = ?β = 0.6re​ = 4.9%

A share with a beta of 0.6 has a required return of 4.9%. The risk-free rate is 1%. What expected market return rm does CAPM imply?

β = 0.6re = 4.9%rf = 1%
rm = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity4 000 000 × €40.50D0​ = €1.80g = 2%debt€162 000 000rd​ = 3%T = 25.8%

A company has 4 000 000 shares trading at €40.50; the book value of its equity is €64 800 000. It just paid a dividend of €1.80 per share, and dividends grow by 2% per year. Its debt has a market value of €162 000 000 and a pre-tax cost of 3%. The tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 4 000 000P0 = €40.50book equity = €64 800 000D0 = €1.80g = 2%D = €162 000 000rd = 3%T = 25.8%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€ABQ = ?

A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €20 000 per year and a variable cost of €10 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €29 000 per year and a variable cost of €4 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?

FA = €20 000vA = €10FB = €29 000vB = €4
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €18 per unit, with a variable cost of €8 per unit and fixed costs of €10 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 1 600 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €10 000p = €18v = €8budget = 1 600
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 32940 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = r/m = 0.05/12 = 0.004167
N = m·n = 12·10 = 120

Future value

FV = 20 000·(1 + 0.004167)120 = 20 000·1.647 = €32 940.19

Answer

FV = €32 940.19
2.Time value of money

Answer: B = 170677 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.0035, N = 300
A = 300 000·0.0035/(1 − (1 + 0.0035)−300) = €1 616.83

Present value of the remaining payments

Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.

N − k = 300 − 168 = 132
B = 1617·(1 − (1 + 0.0035)−132)/0.0035 = €170 676.53

Answer

B = €170 676.53
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 10068 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −45 000
CF1/(1 + 0.06)1 = 9 000/1.06 = 8 490.57
CF2/(1 + 0.06)2 = 12 000/1.124 = 10 679.96
CF3/(1 + 0.06)3 = 22 000/1.191 = 18 471.62
CF4/(1 + 0.06)4 = 22 000/1.262 = 17 426.06

Add them up

NPV = €10 068.21

Answer

NPV = €10 068.21

NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 5.472 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Required annuity factor

(1 − (1 + i)−6)/i = 20 000/4 000 = 5

Solve for the rate

The annuity factor falls as the rate rises; bracket the rate and narrow down.

i = 5%: 5.076
i = 6%: 4.917
IRR = 5.472%

Answer

IRR = 5.472%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 941.5 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €20.00, i = 0.025, N = 14

Present value of the coupons

€20.00·(1 − 0.7077)/0.025 = €233.82

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.7077 = €707.73

Price

P = €941.55

Answer

P = €941.55

The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1010 €

Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.

Modified duration

Dmod = 10.2/1.03 = 9.903

Estimated price change

%ΔP ≈ −9.903·(−0.0075) = 7.427%
P ≈ 940·(1 + 0.07427) = €1 009.82

Answer

P = €1 009.82

Duration is a linear estimate; for large yield changes convexity makes the true price a little higher.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: rm = 7.5 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market risk premium

rm − rf = (4.9% − 1%)/0.6 = 6.5%

Market return

rm = 1% + 6.5% = 7.5%

Answer

rm = 7.5%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 4.38 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 1.8·1.02 = €1.84
re = 1.836/40.5 + 0.02 = 6.533%

Market values

E = 4 000 000·€40.50 = €162 000 000
V = €324 000 000, E/V = 0.5, D/V = 0.5

WACC

WACC = 0.5·6.533% + 0.5·3%·(1 − 0.258) = 4.38%

Answer

WACC = 4.38%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 1500 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Equal total costs

20 000 + 10Q = 29 000 + 4Q

Solve for Q

Q = (29 000 − 20 000)/(10 − 4) = 1 500

Answer

Q = 1 500 units

Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.

10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 37.5 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 10 000/10 = 1 000

Margin of safety

MS = (1 600 − 1 000)/1 600·100 = 37.5%

Answer

MS = 37.5%

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