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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €2 000 at 8% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 12 years.
PV = €2 000r = 8%t = 12
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You deposit €6 000 at the start of every year for 24 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 4% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 24? Find FV.
A = €6 000i = 4%n = 24
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €500 000 today. It generates €55 000 at the end of the first year, and the cash flow then grows by 1% per year forever. The cost of capital is 11%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €500 000CF1 = €55 000g = 1%r = 11%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
A project costs €25 000 and returns €10 000, €17 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −25 000CF1 = 10 000CF2 = 17 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 13 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €663 when the yield to maturity is 9%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.
F = €1 000n = 13P = €663YTM = 9%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond trades at €1 045 with a yield to maturity of 5% (annual compounding) and a Macaulay duration of 5.2 years. Use the modified duration to estimate the new price P if the yield rises by 75 basis points.
P0 = €1 045y = 5%D = 5.2Δy = +75 bp
P = €
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A share with a beta of 2 has a required return of 10%. The risk-free rate is 1%. What expected market return rm does CAPM imply?
β = 2re = 10%rf = 1%
rm = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
A company has 1 000 000 shares at €50.50 each and 40 000 bonds trading at €960 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 3.5% and the tax rate is 30%. The share’s beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate 3% and the market return 8%. Find the WACC.
β = 1.1rf = 3%rm = 8%rd = 3.5%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A company sells 2 400 units at €32 each. The variable cost is €30 per unit and fixed costs are €1 600. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 2 400p = €32v = €30F = €1 600
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A product sells for €30 per unit, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €37 500 per year. Budgeted sales are 3 750 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.
F = €37 500p = €30v = €15budget = 3 750
MS = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 5223 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Exponent
r·t = 0.08·12 = 0.96
e0.96 = 2.612
Future value
FV = 2 000·2.612 = €5 223.39
Answer
FV = €5 223.39
2.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 243875 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Ordinary annuity factor
((1 + 0.04)24 − 1)/0.04 = 39.08
Annuity due
Each deposit is invested one year longer.
FV = 6 000·39.08·1.04 = €243 875.45
Answer
FV = €243 875.45
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 50000 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Value of the cash flows
PV = 55 000/(0.11 − 0.01) = 550 000.00
NPV
NPV = 550 000.00 − 500 000 = €50 000.00
Answer
NPV = €50 000.00
NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 4.853 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(0%) = 2 000.00
NPV(5%) = −56.69
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Present value of the face value
1000·(1 + 0.09)−13 = €326.18
Coupon
C = (663 − 326.18)/7.487 = €44.99
Coupon rate
c = 44.99/1000 = 4.499%
Answer
c = 4.499%
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: P = 1006 €
Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.
Modified duration
Dmod = 5.2/1.05 = 4.952
Estimated price change
%ΔP ≈ −4.952·(0.0075) = −3.714%
P ≈ 1045·(1 − 0.03714) = €1 006.19
Answer
P = €1 006.19
Duration is a linear estimate; for large yield changes convexity makes the true price a little higher.
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: rm = 5.5 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Market risk premium
rm − rf = (10% − 1%)/2 = 4.5%
Market return
rm = 1% + 4.5% = 5.5%
Answer
rm = 5.5%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 5.887 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 2 400·(32 − 30) = €4 800
Operating profit
Π = 4 800 − 1 600 = €3 200
DOL
DOL = 4 800/3 200 = 1.5
Answer
DOL = 1.5
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: MS = 33.33 %
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).