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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €10 000 at 2% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 11 years.
PV = €10 000r = 2%t = 11
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You borrow €5 000 at 7.2% per year, compounded monthly, and repay €175 at the end of every month. How many months does it take until the loan is repaid (the last payment may be smaller)? Give the number of payments N.
P = €5 000A = €1757.2% / 12
N = payments
3.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €45 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €14 000, €21 000, €19 000, €19 000. The cost of capital is 5%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €40 000 and returns €21 000, €23 000, €23 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Cash flows can be reinvested at the cost of capital of 10%. Find the modified internal rate of return MIRR in percent.
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 8% and matures in 12 years. Its yield to maturity changes from 9% to 10.5%. By how much ΔP does the bond price change?
F = €1 000coupon = 8%n = 12y1 = 9%y2 = 10.5%
ΔP = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 4.5% and matures in 5 years. The yield to maturity is 3%. Find the Macaulay duration D in years.
F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%n = 5YTM = 3%
D = years
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €8 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its WACC is 10.08%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3% and the tax rate is 25%. Find the cost of equity re.
A company has 4 000 000 shares at €50.00 each and 40 000 bonds trading at €1 020 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 4.5% and the tax rate is 25.8%. The share’s beta is 1.2, the risk-free rate 2.5% and the market return 7%. Find the WACC.
β = 1.2rf = 2.5%rm = 7%rd = 4.5%T = 25.8%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €20 000 per year and a variable cost of €15 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €32 000 per year and a variable cost of €12 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?
FA = €20 000vA = €15FB = €32 000vB = €12
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells 2 000 units per month at €31 each, with a variable cost of €25 per unit and fixed costs of €6 000 per month. The variable cost rises by €1 per unit and the price stays the same. How many units Q must now be sold per month to keep the same profit?
Q = 2 000p = €31v = €25 → €26F = €6 000
Q = units
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 12461 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Exponent
r·t = 0.02·11 = 0.22
e0.22 = 1.246
Future value
FV = 10 000·1.246 = €12 460.77
Answer
FV = €12 460.77
2.Time value of money
Answer: N = 32 payments
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rearrange the annuity formula
i = 0.006
(1 + i)−N = 1 − 5 000·0.006/175 = 0.8286
Solve with logarithms
N = −ln(0.8286)/ln(1.006) = 31.44
Round up to whole payments
31 full payments leave a small balance, which the last, smaller payment clears.
N = 32
Answer
N = 32 payments
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 19425 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −45 000
CF1/(1 + 0.05)1 = 14 000/1.05 = 13 333.33
CF2/(1 + 0.05)2 = 21 000/1.103 = 19 047.62
CF3/(1 + 0.05)3 = 19 000/1.158 = 16 412.91
CF4/(1 + 0.05)4 = 19 000/1.216 = 15 631.35
Add them up
NPV = €19 425.21
Answer
NPV = €19 425.21
NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: MIRR = 22.88 %
Modified IRR: compound every inflow forward to the end of the project at the reinvestment rate (usually the cost of capital) to get the terminal value TV. MIRR is the rate that turns the initial investment into TV: MIRR = (TV/C₀)^(1/n) − 1.
Terminal value of the inflows
21 000·1.12 = 25 410.00
23 000·1.11 = 25 300.00
23 500·1.10 = 23 500.00
TV = 74 210.00
MIRR
MIRR = (74 210.00/40 000)1/3 − 1 = 22.88%
Answer
MIRR = 22.88%
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: ΔP = −94.64 €
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.
Present value of each cash flow
t = 1: 45/1.03 = 43.69, t·PV = 43.69
t = 2: 45/1.061 = 42.42, t·PV = 84.83
t = 3: 45/1.093 = 41.18, t·PV = 123.54
t = 4: 45/1.126 = 39.98, t·PV = 159.93
t = 5: 1045/1.159 = 901.43, t·PV = 4 507.13
Duration
P = 1 068.70
D = 4 919.13/1 068.70 = 4.603
Answer
D = 4.603 years
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: re = 14 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €12 000 000, E/V = 0.6667, D/V = 0.3333
Debt part of the WACC
0.3333·3%·(1 − 0.25) = 0.75%
Cost of equity
re = (10.08% − 0.75%)/0.6667 = 14%
Answer
re = 14%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 7.127 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Equal total costs
20 000 + 15Q = 32 000 + 12Q
Solve for Q
Q = (32 000 − 20 000)/(15 − 12) = 4 000
Answer
Q = 4 000 units
Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: Q = 2400 units
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).