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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €2 000 at a nominal rate of 4% per year, compounded quarterly. Find the value FV of the investment after 7 years.
PV = €2 0004% / 4n = 7
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You save €50 at the end of every month for 22 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €502.4% / 12N = 264
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €75 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €27 000, €18 000, €20 000, €31 000. The cost of capital is 5%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €50 000 today. Its cash flow is €4 500 at the end of year 1 and grows by 4% per year until the last cash flow at the end of year 10. The cost of capital is 8%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €50 000CF1 = €4 500g = 4%n = 10r = 8%
NPV = €
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 6 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €1 138 when the yield to maturity is 2.5%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.
F = €1 000n = 6P = €1 138YTM = 2.5%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with 10 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 8%) sells for €1 147. The issuer can call it in 4 years at a call price of €1 080. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 8%P = €1 147call price = €1 080call in 4 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €5 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 12%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 28%. Find the WACC.
A company's business has an unlevered (asset) beta of 1.1. It plans a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.4. The tax rate is 25%, the risk-free rate is 3% and the market risk premium is 7%. Find the cost of equity re at the new capital structure.
βU = 1.1D/E = 0.4T = 25%rf = 3%rm − rf = 7%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A company sells 4 000 units at €26 each. The variable cost is €6 per unit and fixed costs are €40 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 4 000p = €26v = €6F = €40 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells 2 400 units at €33 each, with a variable cost of €30 per unit and fixed costs of €4 500. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 15%?
Q = 2 400p = €33v = €30F = €4 500%ΔQ = +15%
%ΔΠ = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 2643 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate and number of periods
i = r/m = 0.04/4 = 0.01
N = m·n = 4·7 = 28
Future value
FV = 2 000·(1 + 0.01)28 = 2 000·1.321 = €2 642.58
Answer
FV = €2 642.58
2.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 17366 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €13 200 yourself; the rest is interest.
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 9821 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −75 000
CF1/(1 + 0.05)1 = 27 000/1.05 = 25 714.29
CF2/(1 + 0.05)2 = 18 000/1.103 = 16 326.53
CF3/(1 + 0.05)3 = 20 000/1.158 = 17 276.75
CF4/(1 + 0.05)4 = 31 000/1.216 = 25 503.78
Add them up
NPV = €9 821.35
Answer
NPV = €9 821.35
NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −14634 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of the growing annuity
((1.04)/(1.08))10 = 0.6856
PV = 4 500/(0.08 − 0.04)·(1 − 0.6856) = 35 365.55
NPV
NPV = 35 365.55 − 50 000 = −€14 634.45
Answer
NPV = −€14 634.45
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: c = 5.005 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Present value of the face value
1000·(1 + 0.025)−6 = €862.30
Coupon
C = (1138 − 862.30)/5.508 = €50.05
Coupon rate
c = 50.05/1000 = 5.005%
Answer
c = 5.005%
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: YTC = 5.632 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
1147 = 80·(1 − (1 + y)−4)/y + 1080/(1 + y)4
Solve numerically
y = 5%: €1 172.19
y = 6%: €1 132.67
YTC = 5.632%
Answer
YTC = 5.632%
The yield to maturity is 6.003%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 7.947 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €9 000 000, E/V = 0.5556, D/V = 0.4444
WACC
WACC = 0.5556·12% + 0.4444·4%·(1 − 0.28) = 7.947%
Answer
WACC = 7.947%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: re = 13.01 %
Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.
Levered beta
βL = 1.1·(1 + 0.75·0.4) = 1.43
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 3% + 1.43·7% = 13.01%
Answer
re = 13.01%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: DOL = 2
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 4 000·(26 − 6) = €80 000
Operating profit
Π = 80 000 − 40 000 = €40 000
DOL
DOL = 80 000/40 000 = 2
Answer
DOL = 2
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: %ΔΠ = 40 %
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.