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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
A credit card charges a nominal interest rate of 20% per year, compounded quarterly. Find the effective annual rate EAR in percent.
r = 20%m = 4
EAR = %
2.Time value of moneyHard
You want €10 000 in 9 years. You save the same amount at the end of every month in an account paying 4.8% per year, compounded monthly. Find the monthly deposit A.
FV = €10 0004.8% / 12N = 108
A = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €30 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €10 000, €12 000, €10 000. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €10 000 and returns €5 500, €6 500, €7 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −10 000CF1 = 5 500CF2 = 6 500CF3 = 7 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
You buy a bond with 3 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 6%) when its yield to maturity is 9%. One year later, just after receiving the first coupon, you sell it when the yield to maturity is 10%. Find your holding period return HPR in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 6%n = 3y0 = 9%y1 = 10%
HPR = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with 19 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 8%) sells for €1 161. The issuer can call it in 6 years at a call price of €1 080. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 8%P = €1 161call price = €1 080call in 6 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €3 000 000 and debt worth €2 000 000. Its cost of equity is 14%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4.5% and the tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC.
A company has equity with a market value of €5 000 000 and a cost of equity of 13%. Its debt consists of 5 000 bonds (face value €1 000, annual coupon 7%, 6 years to maturity) that trade at €977 each. The tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC, using the yield to maturity of the bonds as the pre-tax cost of debt.
A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €20 000 per year and a variable cost of €10 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €23 000 per year and a variable cost of €7 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?
FA = €20 000vA = €10FB = €23 000vB = €7
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
A product sells for €32 per unit, with a variable cost of €30 per unit and fixed costs of €10 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 8 000 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.
F = €10 000p = €32v = €30budget = 8 000
MS = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: EAR = 21.55 %
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate per period
r/m = 0.2/4 = 0.05
Compound over one year
EAR = (1 + 0.05)4 − 1 = 1.216 − 1 = 21.55%
Answer
EAR = 21.55%
The EAR is always above the nominal rate when interest compounds more than once a year.
2.Time value of money
Answer: A = 74.21 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −30 000
CF1/(1 + 0.1)1 = 10 000/1.1 = 9 090.91
CF2/(1 + 0.1)2 = 12 000/1.21 = 9 917.36
CF3/(1 + 0.1)3 = 10 000/1.331 = 7 513.15
Add them up
NPV = €−3 478.59
Answer
NPV = €−3 478.59
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 38.46 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(35%) = 485.70
NPV(40%) = −204.08
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
IRR ≈ 35 + 5·485.70/(485.70 − (−204.08)) = 38.52%
exact: NPV(38.46%) = 0 → IRR = 38.46%
Answer
IRR = 38.46%
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: HPR = 7.198 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
1161 = 80·(1 − (1 + y)−6)/y + 1080/(1 + y)6
Solve numerically
y = 5%: €1 211.97
y = 6%: €1 154.74
YTC = 5.888%
Answer
YTC = 5.888%
The yield to maturity is 6.5%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 9.66 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €5 000 000, E/V = 0.6, D/V = 0.4
WACC
WACC = 0.6·14% + 0.4·4.5%·(1 − 0.3) = 9.66%
Answer
WACC = 9.66%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 9.5 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Equal total costs
20 000 + 10Q = 23 000 + 7Q
Solve for Q
Q = (23 000 − 20 000)/(10 − 7) = 1 000
Answer
Q = 1 000 units
Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: MS = 37.5 %
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).