Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…13PV = ?€3 000€3 000€3 000€3 000

An annuity pays €3 000 at the end of each year for 13 years. The interest rate is 5% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.

A = €3 000i = 5%n = 13
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months01…60…300€150 000AB = ?A2.4% / 12

A mortgage of €150 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 25 years at 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 5? Find the outstanding balance B.

P = €150 0002.4% / 12N = 300k = 60
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123…9−400 00034 000+3%+3%…r = 10%, NPV = ?

A project costs €400 000 today. It generates €34 000 at the end of the first year, and the cash flow then grows by 3% per year forever. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €400 000CF1 = €34 000g = 3%r = 10%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−50 00021 00032 500

A project costs €50 000 and returns €21 000, €32 500 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 21 000CF2 = 32 500
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123456€908C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 6 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €908 when the yield to maturity is 8%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 6P = €908YTM = 8%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123€1 089€60€60€60 + €1 060

A bond with 12 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 6%) sells for €1 089. The issuer can call it in 3 years at a call price of €1 060. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 6%P = €1 089call price = €1 060call in 3 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
βr (%)SMLrf​ = 2.5%β = 1rm​ = ?β = 1.4re​ = 10.2%

A share with a beta of 1.4 has a required return of 10.2%. The risk-free rate is 2.5%. What expected market return rm does CAPM imply?

β = 1.4re = 10.2%rf = 2.5%
rm = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity5 000 000 × €57.50β = 1.5rf​ = 1.5%, rm​ = 5.5%debt20 000 × €1 000rd​ = 3%T = 30%

A company has 5 000 000 shares at €57.50 each and 20 000 bonds trading at €1 000 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 3% and the tax rate is 30%. The share’s beta is 1.5, the risk-free rate 1.5% and the market return 5.5%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.5rf = 1.5%rm = 5.5%rd = 3%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost1200

A company sells 1 200 units at €18 each. The variable cost is €12 per unit and fixed costs are €4 800. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 1 200p = €18v = €12F = €4 800
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €23 per unit, with a variable cost of €20 per unit and fixed costs of €1 500 per year. Budgeted sales are 750 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €1 500p = €23v = €20budget = 750
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 28181 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Annuity factor

(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.5303)/0.05 = 9.394

Present value

PV = 3 000·9.394 = €28 180.72

Answer

PV = €28 180.72
2.Time value of money

Answer: B = 126731 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.002, N = 300
A = 150 000·0.002/(1 − (1 + 0.002)−300) = €665.40

Present value of the remaining payments

Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.

N − k = 300 − 60 = 240
B = 665.4·(1 − (1 + 0.002)−240)/0.002 = €126 731.27

Answer

B = €126 731.27
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 85714 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Value of the cash flows

PV = 34 000/(0.1 − 0.03) = 485 714.29

NPV

NPV = 485 714.29 − 400 000 = €85 714.29

Answer

NPV = €85 714.29

NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 4.313 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(0%) = 3 500.00
NPV(5%) = −521.54

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 0 + 5·3 500.00/(3 500.00 − (−521.54)) = 4.352%
exact: NPV(4.313%) = 0 → IRR = 4.313%

Answer

IRR = 4.313%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 6.01 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.08)−6 = €630.17

Coupon

C = (908 − 630.17)/4.623 = €60.10

Coupon rate

c = 60.1/1000 = 6.01%

Answer

c = 6.01%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTC = 4.662 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

1089 = 60·(1 − (1 + y)−3)/y + 1060/(1 + y)3

Solve numerically

y = 4%: €1 108.84
y = 5%: €1 079.06
YTC = 4.662%

Answer

YTC = 4.662%

The yield to maturity is 4.996%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: rm = 8 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market risk premium

rm − rf = (10.2% − 2.5%)/1.4 = 5.5%

Market return

rm = 2.5% + 5.5% = 8%

Answer

rm = 8%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.149 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 5 000 000·€57.50 = €287 500 000
D = 20 000·€1 000 = €20 000 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 1.5% + 1.5·4% = 7.5%

Weights

V = €307 500 000, E/V = 0.935, D/V = 0.06504

WACC

WACC = 0.935·7.5% + 0.06504·3%·(1 − 0.3) = 7.149%

Answer

WACC = 7.149%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 3

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 1 200·(18 − 12) = €7 200

Operating profit

Π = 7 200 − 4 800 = €2 400

DOL

DOL = 7 200/2 400 = 3

Answer

DOL = 3
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 33.33 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 1 500/3 = 500

Margin of safety

MS = (750 − 500)/750·100 = 33.33%

Answer

MS = 33.33%

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