Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…9PV = ?€50 000

You need €50 000 in 9 years. An account pays 2% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €50 0002% / 4n = 9
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
years0123…16€2 500€2 500€2 500FV = ?

You deposit €2 500 at the start of every year for 16 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 5% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 16? Find FV.

A = €2 500i = 5%n = 16
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−40 00010 50010 00013 00012 00015 00017 000

A project costs €40 000 today and returns €10 500, €10 000, €13 000, €12 000, €15 000, €17 000 at the end of years 1 to 6. The cost of capital is 8%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 8%CF0 = −40 000CF1 = 10 500CF2 = 10 000CF3 = 13 000CF4 = 12 000CF5 = 15 000CF6 = 17 000
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−20 00013 0009 50012 000

A project costs €20 000 and returns €13 000, €9 500, €12 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 13 000CF2 = 9 500CF3 = 12 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years012345€1 203C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 5 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €1 203 when the yield to maturity is 3.5%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 5P = €1 203YTM = 3.5%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123…8€1 105€50€50 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 5% matures in 8 years and sells for €1 105. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 5%n = 8P = €1 105
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equityEre​ = 14%debtD = 1.5·Erd​ = 7%T = 21%

A company has a debt-to-equity ratio (at market values) of 1.5. Its cost of equity is 14%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.

D/E = 1.5re = 14%rd = 7%T = 21%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity5 000 000 × €20.50β = 0.8rf​ = 3%, rm​ = 8.5%debt20 000 × €960rd​ = 5%T = 30%

A company has 5 000 000 shares at €20.50 each and 20 000 bonds trading at €960 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 5% and the tax rate is 30%. The share’s beta is 0.8, the risk-free rate 3% and the market return 8.5%. Find the WACC.

β = 0.8rf = 3%rm = 8.5%rd = 5%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost3000

A company sells 3 000 units at €21 each. The variable cost is €6 per unit and fixed costs are €18 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 3 000p = €21v = €6F = €18 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost800+5%%ΔΠ = ?

A company sells 800 units at €17 each, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €1 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 5%?

Q = 800p = €17v = €15F = €1 000%ΔQ = +5%
%ΔΠ = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 41782 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.02/4 = 0.005
N = 4·9 = 36

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 50 000/1.197 = €41 782.25

Answer

PV = €41 782.25
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 62101 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Ordinary annuity factor

((1 + 0.05)16 − 1)/0.05 = 23.66

Annuity due

Each deposit is invested one year longer.

FV = 2 500·23.66·1.05 = €62 100.92

Answer

FV = €62 100.92
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 4.251 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 10 500/1.08 = 9 722.22 → Σ = 9 722.22
year 2: 10 000/1.166 = 8 573.39 → Σ = 18 295.61
year 3: 13 000/1.26 = 10 319.82 → Σ = 28 615.43
year 4: 12 000/1.36 = 8 820.36 → Σ = 37 435.79
year 5: 15 000/1.469 = 10 208.75 → Σ = 47 644.54

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 4 + 2 564.21/10 208.75 = 4.251

Answer

DPB = 4.251 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.542 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 33.92 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(30%) = 1 083.30
NPV(35%) = −280.45

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 30 + 5·1 083.30/(1 083.30 − (−280.45)) = 33.97%
exact: NPV(33.92%) = 0 → IRR = 33.92%

Answer

IRR = 33.92%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 7.996 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.035)−5 = €841.97

Coupon

C = (1203 − 841.97)/4.515 = €79.96

Coupon rate

c = 79.96/1000 = 7.996%

Answer

c = 7.996%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 3.474 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€1 105 = €50·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁸)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁸

Solve numerically

P(3%) = €1 140.39, P(4%) = €1 067.33
YTM = 3.474%

Answer

YTM = 3.474%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 8.918 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights from D/E

E/V = 1/(1 + 1.5) = 0.4
D/V = 1.5/(1 + 1.5) = 0.6

WACC

WACC = 0.4·14% + 0.6·7%·(1 − 0.21) = 8.918%

Answer

WACC = 8.918%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6.785 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 5 000 000·€20.50 = €102 500 000
D = 20 000·€960 = €19 200 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 3% + 0.8·5.5% = 7.4%

Weights

V = €121 700 000, E/V = 0.8422, D/V = 0.1578

WACC

WACC = 0.8422·7.4% + 0.1578·5%·(1 − 0.3) = 6.785%

Answer

WACC = 6.785%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 1.667

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 3 000·(21 − 6) = €45 000

Operating profit

Π = 45 000 − 18 000 = €27 000

DOL

DOL = 45 000/27 000 = 1.667

Answer

DOL = 1.667
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: %ΔΠ = 13.33 %

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Contribution margin and profit

CM = 800·2 = €1 600
Π = 1 600 − 1 000 = €600

DOL

DOL = 1 600/600 = 2.667

Change in profit

%ΔΠ = 2.667·(+5%) = +13.33%

Answer

%ΔΠ = +13.33%

Check: new profit = 840·2 − 1 000 = €680.00.

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