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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You need €25 000 in 6 years. An account pays 5% per year, compounded monthly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.
FV = €25 0005% / 12n = 6
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
A mortgage of €150 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 20 years at 6% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 6? Find the outstanding balance B.
P = €150 0006% / 12N = 240k = 72
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €200 000 today. It generates €12 000 at the end of the first year, and the cash flow then grows by 4% per year forever. The cost of capital is 9%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €200 000CF1 = €12 000g = 4%r = 9%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
A project costs €10 000 and returns €6 000, €7 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −10 000CF1 = 6 000CF2 = 7 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 3% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 5 years. The yield to maturity is 9% per year. Find the price P of the bond.
F = €1 000coupon = 3%YTM = 9%n = 5
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 7% matures in 7 years and sells for €1 085. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 7%n = 7P = €1 085
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €6 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 20%. Find the WACC.
A company has 2 000 000 shares trading at €42.50; the book value of its equity is €42 500 000. It just paid a dividend of €2.00 per share, and dividends grow by 3% per year. Its debt has a market value of €68 000 000 and a pre-tax cost of 3%. The tax rate is 25%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.
A product sells for €14 per unit with a variable cost of €6 per unit. Fixed costs are €32 000 per month. How many units Q must be sold per month to make a profit of €2 000?
F = €32 000p = €14v = €6profit = €2 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells 1 280 units at €40 each, with a variable cost of €20 per unit and fixed costs of €16 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume falls by 20%?
Q = 1 280p = €40v = €20F = €16 000%ΔQ = −20%
%ΔΠ = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 18532 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate and number of periods
i = 0.05/12 = 0.004167
N = 12·6 = 72
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 25 000/1.349 = €18 532.00
Answer
PV = €18 532.00
2.Time value of money
Answer: B = 121948 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.
N − k = 240 − 72 = 168
B = 1075·(1 − (1 + 0.005)−168)/0.005 = €121 947.66
Answer
B = €121 947.66
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 40000 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Value of the cash flows
PV = 12 000/(0.09 − 0.04) = 240 000.00
NPV
NPV = 240 000.00 − 200 000 = €40 000.00
Answer
NPV = €40 000.00
NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 18.88 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(15%) = 510.40
NPV(20%) = −138.89
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
IRR ≈ 15 + 5·510.40/(510.40 − (−138.89)) = 18.93%
exact: NPV(18.88%) = 0 → IRR = 18.88%
Answer
IRR = 18.88%
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: P = 762.6 €
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Per period
C = €15.00, i = 0.045, N = 10
Present value of the coupons
€15.00·(1 − 0.6439)/0.045 = €118.69
Present value of the face value
€1 000·0.6439 = €643.93
Price
P = €762.62
Answer
P = €762.62
The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: YTM = 5.504 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
€1 085 = €70·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁷)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁷
Solve numerically
P(5%) = €1 115.73, P(6%) = €1 055.82
YTM = 5.504%
Answer
YTM = 5.504%
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 7.28 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €10 000 000, E/V = 0.6, D/V = 0.4
WACC
WACC = 0.6·10% + 0.4·4%·(1 − 0.2) = 7.28%
Answer
WACC = 7.28%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 5.359 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.