Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years01234PV = ?€20 000

You need €20 000 in 4 years. An account pays 3.6% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €20 0003.6% / 4n = 4
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…N = ?€12 000€175€175€175€1757.2% / 12

You borrow €12 000 at 7.2% per year, compounded monthly, and repay €175 at the end of every month. How many months does it take until the loan is repaid (the last payment may be smaller)? Give the number of payments N.

P = €12 000A = €1757.2% / 12
N = payments
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234€40 000€2 000€2 000€2 000€2 000r = 10%, EAC = ?

A machine costs €40 000 today, lasts 4 years and costs €2 000 per year to run (paid at the end of each year). The cost of capital is 10%. Find its equivalent annual cost EAC.

C0 = €40 000M = €2 000n = 4r = 10%
EAC = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−40 00024 00025 50029 000

A project costs €40 000 and returns €24 000, €25 500, €29 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −40 000CF1 = 24 000CF2 = 25 500CF3 = 29 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123…11€907C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 11 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €907 when the yield to maturity is 3%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 11P = €907YTM = 3%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
half-years0123…24€493€10€10€10 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 2% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 12 years. It sells for €493. Find its yield to maturity YTM as an annual rate (twice the half-yearly yield), in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 2% (2×)n = 12P = €493
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?ordinary shares€8 000 000re​ = 12%preferred shares€1 000 000rp​ = 6.5%debt€5 000 000rd​ = 5%T = 30%

A company is financed with ordinary shares worth €8 000 000, preferred shares worth €1 000 000 and debt worth €5 000 000. The cost of equity is 12%, the cost of preferred stock 6.5% and the pre-tax cost of debt 5%. The tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC.

E = €8 000 000Ps = €1 000 000D = €5 000 000re = 12%rp = 6.5%rd = 5%T = 30%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity4 000 000 × €50.50β = 1.8rf​ = 4%, rm​ = 10%debt40 000 × €980rd​ = 5%T = 28%

A company has 4 000 000 shares at €50.50 each and 40 000 bonds trading at €980 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 5% and the tax rate is 28%. The share’s beta is 1.8, the risk-free rate 4% and the market return 10%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.8rf = 4%rm = 10%rd = 5%T = 28%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€ABQ = ?

A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €25 000 per year and a variable cost of €25 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €28 000 per year and a variable cost of €19 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?

FA = €25 000vA = €25FB = €28 000vB = €19
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €10 per unit, with a variable cost of €4 per unit and fixed costs of €15 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 4 000 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €15 000p = €10v = €4budget = 4 000
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 17329 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.036000000000000004/4 = 0.009
N = 4·4 = 16

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 20 000/1.154 = €17 328.91

Answer

PV = €17 328.91
2.Time value of money

Answer: N = 89 payments

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rearrange the annuity formula

i = 0.006
(1 + i)−N = 1 − 12 000·0.006/175 = 0.5886

Solve with logarithms

N = −ln(0.5886)/ln(1.006) = 88.61

Round up to whole payments

88 full payments leave a small balance, which the last, smaller payment clears.

N = 89

Answer

N = 89 payments
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: EAC = 14619 €

Equivalent annual cost: spread the present value of all costs over the life as an equal yearly amount (an annuity): EAC = PV·r/(1 − (1 + r)⁻ⁿ). It lets you compare machines with different lives.

Annuity factor

(1 − 1.1−4)/0.1 = 3.17

Annualised purchase price

40 000/3.17 = 12 618.83

EAC

EAC = 12 618.83 + 2 000 = €14 618.83

Answer

EAC = €14 618.83
4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 41.37 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(40%) = 721.57
NPV(45%) = −1 807.37

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 40 + 5·721.57/(721.57 − (−1 807.37)) = 41.43%
exact: NPV(41.37%) = 0 → IRR = 41.37%

Answer

IRR = 41.37%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 1.995 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.03)−11 = €722.42

Coupon

C = (907 − 722.42)/9.253 = €19.95

Coupon rate

c = 19.95/1000 = 1.995%

Answer

c = 1.995%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 8.993 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €10.00, N = 24

Solve numerically

i = 4.496% per half-year

YTM

YTM = 2·4.496% = 8.993%

Answer

YTM = 8.993%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 8.571 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = 8 000 000 + 1 000 000 + 5 000 000 = €14 000 000
E/V = 0.5714, Ps/V = 0.07143, D/V = 0.3571

WACC

WACC = 0.5714·12% + 0.07143·6.5% + 0.3571·5%·(1 − 0.3) = 8.571%

Answer

WACC = 8.571%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 12.98 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 4 000 000·€50.50 = €202 000 000
D = 40 000·€980 = €39 200 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 4% + 1.8·6% = 14.8%

Weights

V = €241 200 000, E/V = 0.8375, D/V = 0.1625

WACC

WACC = 0.8375·14.8% + 0.1625·5%·(1 − 0.28) = 12.98%

Answer

WACC = 12.98%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 500 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Equal total costs

25 000 + 25Q = 28 000 + 19Q

Solve for Q

Q = (28 000 − 25 000)/(25 − 19) = 500

Answer

Q = 500 units

Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.

10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 37.5 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 15 000/6 = 2 500

Margin of safety

MS = (4 000 − 2 500)/4 000·100 = 37.5%

Answer

MS = 37.5%

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