Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…9PV = ?€10 000+3%+3%…r = 7%

A property is expected to earn net rent of €10 000 next year. The rent is expected to grow by 3% per year forever. The required return is 7% per year. Find the value PV of the property today.

C1 = €10 000g = 3%r = 7%
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…360€200 000AAAA5.4% / 12, I = ?

A loan of €200 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 30 years at 5.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much interest I is paid in total over the life of the loan?

P = €200 0005.4% / 12N = 360
I = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−45 00010 0009 00018 00021 000

An investment of €45 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €10 000, €9 000, €18 000, €21 000. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 10%CF0 = −45 000CF1 = 10 000CF2 = 9 000CF3 = 18 000CF4 = 21 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−25 00018 50012 50014 000

A project costs €25 000 and returns €18 500, €12 500, €14 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −25 000CF1 = 18 500CF2 = 12 500CF3 = 14 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123…11P€60€60€60 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 6% and matures in 11 years. Its yield to maturity changes from 3% to 2.5%. By how much ΔP does the bond price change?

F = €1 000coupon = 6%n = 11y1 = 3%y2 = 2.5%
ΔP = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years01234P€20€20€20 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 2% and matures in 4 years. The yield to maturity is 5.5%. Find the Macaulay duration D in years.

F = €1 000coupon = 2%n = 4YTM = 5.5%
D = years
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?ordinary shares€10 000 000re​ = 9%preferred shares€1 000 000rp​ = 7%debt€3 000 000rd​ = 4%T = 25%

A company is financed with ordinary shares worth €10 000 000, preferred shares worth €1 000 000 and debt worth €3 000 000. The cost of equity is 9%, the cost of preferred stock 7% and the pre-tax cost of debt 4%. The tax rate is 25%. Find the WACC.

E = €10 000 000Ps = €1 000 000D = €3 000 000re = 9%rp = 7%rd = 4%T = 25%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity5 000 000 × €29.00D0​ = €2.30g = 5%debt€145 000 000rd​ = 3%T = 21%

A company has 5 000 000 shares trading at €29.00; the book value of its equity is €58 000 000. It just paid a dividend of €2.30 per share, and dividends grow by 5% per year. Its debt has a market value of €145 000 000 and a pre-tax cost of 3%. The tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 5 000 000P0 = €29.00book equity = €58 000 000D0 = €2.30g = 5%D = €145 000 000rd = 3%T = 21%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost1880

A company sells 1 880 units at €32 each. The variable cost is €30 per unit and fixed costs are €3 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 1 880p = €32v = €30F = €3 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €16 per unit, with a variable cost of €6 per unit and fixed costs of €5 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 900 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €5 000p = €16v = €6budget = 900
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 250000 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Growing perpetuity

PV = C1/(r − g) = 10 000/(0.07 − 0.03) = 10 000/0.04 = €250 000.00

Answer

PV = €250 000.00
2.Time value of money

Answer: I = 204302 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.0045, N = 360
A = 200 000·0.0045/(1 − (1 + 0.0045)−360) = €1 123.06

Total interest

I = N·A − P = 360·1123 − 200 000 = €204 302.17

Answer

I = €204 302.17
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −604.1 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −45 000
CF1/(1 + 0.1)1 = 10 000/1.1 = 9 090.91
CF2/(1 + 0.1)2 = 9 000/1.21 = 7 438.02
CF3/(1 + 0.1)3 = 18 000/1.331 = 13 523.67
CF4/(1 + 0.1)4 = 21 000/1.464 = 14 343.28

Add them up

NPV = €−604.13

Answer

NPV = €−604.13

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 38.97 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(35%) = 1 252.60
NPV(40%) = −306.12

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 35 + 5·1 252.60/(1 252.60 − (−306.12)) = 39.02%
exact: NPV(38.97%) = 0 → IRR = 38.97%

Answer

IRR = 38.97%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: ΔP = 55.42 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Price at the old yield

C = €60.00, i = 0.03, N = 11
€60.00·(1 − 0.7224)/0.03 + €1 000·0.7224 = €555.16 + €722.42 = €1 277.58

Price at the new yield

C = €60.00, i = 0.025, N = 11
€60.00·(1 − 0.7621)/0.025 + €1 000·0.7621 = €570.85 + €762.14 = €1 333.00

Change

ΔP = 1 333.00 − 1 277.58 = €55.42

Answer

ΔP = €55.42
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: D = 3.875 years

Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.

Present value of each cash flow

t = 1: 20/1.055 = 18.96, t·PV = 18.96
t = 2: 20/1.113 = 17.97, t·PV = 35.94
t = 3: 20/1.174 = 17.03, t·PV = 51.10
t = 4: 1020/1.239 = 823.36, t·PV = 3 293.44

Duration

P = 877.32
D = 3 399.44/877.32 = 3.875

Answer

D = 3.875 years
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.571 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = 10 000 000 + 1 000 000 + 3 000 000 = €14 000 000
E/V = 0.7143, Ps/V = 0.07143, D/V = 0.2143

WACC

WACC = 0.7143·9% + 0.07143·7% + 0.2143·4%·(1 − 0.25) = 7.571%

Answer

WACC = 7.571%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.849 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 2.3·1.05 = €2.42
re = 2.415/29 + 0.05 = 13.33%

Market values

E = 5 000 000·€29.00 = €145 000 000
V = €290 000 000, E/V = 0.5, D/V = 0.5

WACC

WACC = 0.5·13.33% + 0.5·3%·(1 − 0.21) = 7.849%

Answer

WACC = 7.849%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 4.947

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 1 880·(32 − 30) = €3 760

Operating profit

Π = 3 760 − 3 000 = €760

DOL

DOL = 3 760/760 = 4.947

Answer

DOL = 4.947
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 44.44 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 5 000/10 = 500

Margin of safety

MS = (900 − 500)/900·100 = 44.44%

Answer

MS = 44.44%

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