Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123456PV = ?€25 000

You need €25 000 in 6 years. An account pays 2% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €25 0002% / 4n = 6
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
years0123…17€2 000€2 000€2 000FV = ?

You deposit €2 000 at the start of every year for 17 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 4% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 17? Find FV.

A = €2 000i = 4%n = 17
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−60 00016 00016 00016 00031 000

A machine costs €60 000 today. It generates €16 000 at the end of each year for 4 years and can then be sold for €15 000. The cost of capital is 10%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €60 000CF = €16 000S = €15 000n = 4r = 10%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−10 0003 5007 0006 500

A project costs €10 000 and returns €3 500, €7 000, €6 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −10 000CF1 = 3 500CF2 = 7 000CF3 = 6 500
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123…9€1 117C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 9 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €1 117 when the yield to maturity is 3%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 9P = €1 117YTM = 3%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years012345€1 194€80€80€80 + €1 080

A bond with 15 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 8%) sells for €1 194. The issuer can call it in 5 years at a call price of €1 080. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 8%P = €1 194call price = €1 080call in 5 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?ordinary shares€10 000 000re​ = 12%preferred shares€2 000 000rp​ = 6%debt€5 000 000rd​ = 6%T = 30%

A company is financed with ordinary shares worth €10 000 000, preferred shares worth €2 000 000 and debt worth €5 000 000. The cost of equity is 12%, the cost of preferred stock 6% and the pre-tax cost of debt 6%. The tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC.

E = €10 000 000Ps = €2 000 000D = €5 000 000re = 12%rp = 6%rd = 6%T = 30%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
rf​ = 4%, rm​ − rf​ = 7%D/E = 0.4equityβL​ = 1.2debtD/E = 0.75equityre​ = ?debtT = 25.8%

A company's shares have a beta of 1.2 at its current debt-to-equity ratio of 0.4. It plans to raise its debt-to-equity ratio to 0.75. The tax rate is 25.8%, the risk-free rate 4% and the market risk premium 7%. Find the cost of equity re after the change.

βL = 1.2D/E1 = 0.4D/E2 = 0.75T = 25.8%rf = 4%rm − rf = 7%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost800

A company sells 800 units at €26 each. The variable cost is €6 per unit and fixed costs are €10 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 800p = €26v = €6F = €10 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €21 per unit, with a variable cost of €18 per unit and fixed costs of €15 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 5 750 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €15 000p = €21v = €18budget = 5 750
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 22180 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.02/4 = 0.005
N = 4·6 = 24

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 25 000/1.127 = €22 179.64

Answer

PV = €22 179.64
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 49291 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Ordinary annuity factor

((1 + 0.04)17 − 1)/0.04 = 23.7

Annuity due

Each deposit is invested one year longer.

FV = 2 000·23.7·1.04 = €49 290.83

Answer

FV = €49 290.83
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 963 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of the yearly cash flows

16 000·3.17 = 50 717.85

Present value of the salvage value

15 000/1.464 = 10 245.20

NPV

NPV = −60 000 + 50 717.85 + 10 245.20 = €963.05

Answer

NPV = €963.05
4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 28.67 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(25%) = 608.00
NPV(30%) = −207.10

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 25 + 5·608.00/(608.00 − (−207.10)) = 28.73%
exact: NPV(28.67%) = 0 → IRR = 28.67%

Answer

IRR = 28.67%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 4.503 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.03)−9 = €766.42

Coupon

C = (1117 − 766.42)/7.786 = €45.03

Coupon rate

c = 45.03/1000 = 4.503%

Answer

c = 4.503%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTC = 4.971 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

1194 = 80·(1 − (1 + y)−5)/y + 1080/(1 + y)5

Solve numerically

y = 4%: €1 243.83
y = 5%: €1 192.57
YTC = 4.971%

Answer

YTC = 4.971%

The yield to maturity is 6.002%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 9 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = 10 000 000 + 2 000 000 + 5 000 000 = €17 000 000
E/V = 0.5882, Ps/V = 0.1176, D/V = 0.2941

WACC

WACC = 0.5882·12% + 0.1176·6% + 0.2941·6%·(1 − 0.3) = 9%

Answer

WACC = 9%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: re = 14.08 %

Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.

Unlever the beta

βU = 1.2/(1 + 0.742·0.4) = 0.9254

Relever at the new D/E

βL = 0.9254·(1 + 0.742·0.75) = 1.44

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 4% + 1.44·7% = 14.08%

Answer

re = 14.08%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 2.667

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 800·(26 − 6) = €16 000

Operating profit

Π = 16 000 − 10 000 = €6 000

DOL

DOL = 16 000/6 000 = 2.667

Answer

DOL = 2.667
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 13.04 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 15 000/3 = 5 000

Margin of safety

MS = (5 750 − 5 000)/5 750·100 = 13.04%

Answer

MS = 13.04%

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