Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…8€8 000FV = ?

You invest €8 000 at a nominal rate of 2% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 8 years.

PV = €8 0002% / 12n = 8
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…264€250€250€250FV = ?

You save €250 at the end of every month for 22 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.

A = €2502.4% / 12N = 264
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−20 0008 0006 0004 0004 5005 0008 000

A project costs €20 000 today and returns €8 000, €6 000, €4 000, €4 500, €5 000, €8 000 at the end of years 1 to 6. The cost of capital is 10%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 10%CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 8 000CF2 = 6 000CF3 = 4 000CF4 = 4 500CF5 = 5 000CF6 = 8 000
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
r (%)NPVABr* = ?0

Project A costs €20 000 and returns €11 500, €8 000, €4 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €22 000 and returns €6 000, €9 500, €12 000. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.

A: −20 000, 11 500, 8 000, 4 500B: −22 000, 6 000, 9 500, 12 000
r* = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years0123…13€646C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 13 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €646 when the yield to maturity is 6%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 13P = €646YTM = 6%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years012345€1 154€70€70€70 + €1 070

A bond with 10 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 7%) sells for €1 154. The issuer can call it in 5 years at a call price of €1 070. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 7%P = €1 154call price = €1 070call in 5 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€2 000 000re​ = 10%debt€4 000 000rd​ = 5%T = 20%

A company has equity worth €2 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 5% and the tax rate is 20%. Find the WACC.

E = €2 000 000D = €4 000 000re = 10%rd = 5%T = 20%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity1 000 000 × €47.00β = 1.2rf​ = 2%, rm​ = 8.5%debt10 000 × €960rd​ = 7%T = 20%

A company has 1 000 000 shares at €47.00 each and 10 000 bonds trading at €960 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 20%. The share’s beta is 1.2, the risk-free rate 2% and the market return 8.5%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.2rf = 2%rm = 8.5%rd = 7%T = 20%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost12000

A company sells 12 000 units at €26 each. The variable cost is €18 per unit and fixed costs are €32 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 12 000p = €26v = €18F = €32 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €16 per unit, with a variable cost of €4 per unit and fixed costs of €9 600 per year. Budgeted sales are 960 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €9 600p = €16v = €4budget = 960
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 9387 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = r/m = 0.02/12 = 0.001667
N = m·n = 12·8 = 96

Future value

FV = 8 000·(1 + 0.001667)96 = 8 000·1.173 = €9 386.84

Answer

FV = €9 386.84
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 86831 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of deposits

i = 0.024/12 = 0.002
N = 12·22 = 264

Future value of the deposits

FV = A·((1 + i)N − 1)/i = 250·(1.695 − 1)/0.002 = €86 830.50

Answer

FV = €86 830.50

You paid in €66 000 yourself; the rest is interest.

3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 4.544 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 8 000/1.1 = 7 272.73 → Σ = 7 272.73
year 2: 6 000/1.21 = 4 958.68 → Σ = 12 231.40
year 3: 4 000/1.331 = 3 005.26 → Σ = 15 236.66
year 4: 4 500/1.464 = 3 073.56 → Σ = 18 310.22
year 5: 5 000/1.611 = 3 104.61 → Σ = 21 414.83

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 4 + 1 689.78/3 104.61 = 4.544

Answer

DPB = 4.544 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.444 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: r* = 9.059 %

Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.

Difference in cash flows

ΔCF0 = −22 000 − (−20 000) = −2 000
ΔCF1 = 6 000 − 11 500 = −5 500
ΔCF2 = 9 500 − 8 000 = 1 500
ΔCF3 = 12 000 − 4 500 = 7 500

IRR of the difference

NPVΔ(9%) = 8.02
NPVΔ(10%) = −125.47
r* = 9.059%

Answer

r* = 9.059%

Check: at 9.059% both NPVs are €740.11.

5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 2.001 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.06)−13 = €468.84

Coupon

C = (646 − 468.84)/8.853 = €20.01

Coupon rate

c = 20.01/1000 = 2.001%

Answer

c = 2.001%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTC = 4.742 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

1154 = 70·(1 − (1 + y)−5)/y + 1070/(1 + y)5

Solve numerically

y = 4%: €1 191.09
y = 5%: €1 141.44
YTC = 4.742%

Answer

YTC = 4.742%

The yield to maturity is 5.005%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €6 000 000, E/V = 0.3333, D/V = 0.6667

WACC

WACC = 0.3333·10% + 0.6667·5%·(1 − 0.2) = 6%

Answer

WACC = 6%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 9.088 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 1 000 000·€47.00 = €47 000 000
D = 10 000·€960 = €9 600 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2% + 1.2·6.5% = 9.8%

Weights

V = €56 600 000, E/V = 0.8304, D/V = 0.1696

WACC

WACC = 0.8304·9.8% + 0.1696·7%·(1 − 0.2) = 9.088%

Answer

WACC = 9.088%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 1.5

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 12 000·(26 − 18) = €96 000

Operating profit

Π = 96 000 − 32 000 = €64 000

DOL

DOL = 96 000/64 000 = 1.5

Answer

DOL = 1.5
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 16.67 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 9 600/12 = 800

Margin of safety

MS = (960 − 800)/960·100 = 16.67%

Answer

MS = 16.67%

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