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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €8 000 at a nominal rate of 2% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 8 years.
PV = €8 0002% / 12n = 8
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You save €250 at the end of every month for 22 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €2502.4% / 12N = 264
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €20 000 today and returns €8 000, €6 000, €4 000, €4 500, €5 000, €8 000 at the end of years 1 to 6. The cost of capital is 10%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
Project A costs €20 000 and returns €11 500, €8 000, €4 500 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €22 000 and returns €6 000, €9 500, €12 000. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.
A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 13 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €646 when the yield to maturity is 6%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.
F = €1 000n = 13P = €646YTM = 6%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with 10 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 7%) sells for €1 154. The issuer can call it in 5 years at a call price of €1 070. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 7%P = €1 154call price = €1 070call in 5 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €2 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 5% and the tax rate is 20%. Find the WACC.
A company has 1 000 000 shares at €47.00 each and 10 000 bonds trading at €960 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 20%. The share’s beta is 1.2, the risk-free rate 2% and the market return 8.5%. Find the WACC.
β = 1.2rf = 2%rm = 8.5%rd = 7%T = 20%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A company sells 12 000 units at €26 each. The variable cost is €18 per unit and fixed costs are €32 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 12 000p = €26v = €18F = €32 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A product sells for €16 per unit, with a variable cost of €4 per unit and fixed costs of €9 600 per year. Budgeted sales are 960 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.
F = €9 600p = €16v = €4budget = 960
MS = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 9387 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €66 000 yourself; the rest is interest.
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 4.544 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 8 000/1.1 = 7 272.73 → Σ = 7 272.73
year 2: 6 000/1.21 = 4 958.68 → Σ = 12 231.40
year 3: 4 000/1.331 = 3 005.26 → Σ = 15 236.66
year 4: 4 500/1.464 = 3 073.56 → Σ = 18 310.22
year 5: 5 000/1.611 = 3 104.61 → Σ = 21 414.83
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 4 + 1 689.78/3 104.61 = 4.544
Answer
DPB = 4.544 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.444 years).
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: r* = 9.059 %
Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.
Difference in cash flows
ΔCF0 = −22 000 − (−20 000) = −2 000
ΔCF1 = 6 000 − 11 500 = −5 500
ΔCF2 = 9 500 − 8 000 = 1 500
ΔCF3 = 12 000 − 4 500 = 7 500
IRR of the difference
NPVΔ(9%) = 8.02
NPVΔ(10%) = −125.47
r* = 9.059%
Answer
r* = 9.059%
Check: at 9.059% both NPVs are €740.11.
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: c = 2.001 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Present value of the face value
1000·(1 + 0.06)−13 = €468.84
Coupon
C = (646 − 468.84)/8.853 = €20.01
Coupon rate
c = 20.01/1000 = 2.001%
Answer
c = 2.001%
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: YTC = 4.742 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
1154 = 70·(1 − (1 + y)−5)/y + 1070/(1 + y)5
Solve numerically
y = 4%: €1 191.09
y = 5%: €1 141.44
YTC = 4.742%
Answer
YTC = 4.742%
The yield to maturity is 5.005%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 6 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €6 000 000, E/V = 0.3333, D/V = 0.6667
WACC
WACC = 0.3333·10% + 0.6667·5%·(1 − 0.2) = 6%
Answer
WACC = 6%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 9.088 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Market values
E = 1 000 000·€47.00 = €47 000 000
D = 10 000·€960 = €9 600 000
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 2% + 1.2·6.5% = 9.8%
Weights
V = €56 600 000, E/V = 0.8304, D/V = 0.1696
WACC
WACC = 0.8304·9.8% + 0.1696·7%·(1 − 0.2) = 9.088%
Answer
WACC = 9.088%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: DOL = 1.5
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 12 000·(26 − 18) = €96 000
Operating profit
Π = 96 000 − 32 000 = €64 000
DOL
DOL = 96 000/64 000 = 1.5
Answer
DOL = 1.5
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: MS = 16.67 %
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).