Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123PV = ?€40 000

You need €40 000 in 3 years. An account pays 4.8% per year, compounded monthly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €40 0004.8% / 12n = 3
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…72€25 000AAAA2.4% / 12, I = ?

A loan of €25 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 6 years at 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much interest I is paid in total over the life of the loan?

P = €25 0002.4% / 12N = 72
I = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123456−20 0005 5005 5005 5005 5005 5005 500

A project costs €20 000 today and returns €5 500 at the end of each year for 6 years. The cost of capital is 10%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 10%CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 5 500CF2 = 5 500CF3 = 5 500CF4 = 5 500CF5 = 5 500CF6 = 5 500
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−50 00033 50020 00030 000

A project costs €50 000 and returns €33 500, €20 000, €30 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 33 500CF2 = 20 000CF3 = 30 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium

You buy a bond with 11 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 4.5%) when its yield to maturity is 5.5%. One year later, just after receiving the first coupon, you sell it when the yield to maturity is 5%. Find your holding period return HPR in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%n = 11y0 = 5.5%y1 = 5%
HPR = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years01234€950€50€50 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 5% matures in 4 years and sells for €950. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 5%n = 4P = €950
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = 8%equity€8 000 000re​ = ?debt€5 000 000rd​ = 4%T = 20%

A company has equity worth €8 000 000 and debt worth €5 000 000. Its WACC is 8%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 20%. Find the cost of equity re.

E = €8 000 000D = €5 000 000WACC = 8%rd = 4%T = 20%
re = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity€8 000 000re​ = 11%bonds8 000 × €942coupon 4%, n = 7T = 25.8%

A company has equity with a market value of €8 000 000 and a cost of equity of 11%. Its debt consists of 8 000 bonds (face value €1 000, annual coupon 4%, 7 years to maturity) that trade at €942 each. The tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC, using the yield to maturity of the bonds as the pre-tax cost of debt.

E = €8 000 000re = 11%bonds: 8 000 × €942coupon = 4%n = 7T = 25.8%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €8 per unit with a variable cost of €4 per unit. Fixed costs are €16 000 per month. How many units Q must be sold per month to make a profit of €6 000?

F = €16 000p = €8v = €4profit = €6 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €19 per unit, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €20 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 7 000 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €20 000p = €19v = €15budget = 7 000
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 34645 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.048/12 = 0.004
N = 12·3 = 36

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 40 000/1.155 = €34 645.46

Answer

PV = €34 645.46
2.Time value of money

Answer: I = 1868 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.002, N = 72
A = 25 000·0.002/(1 − (1 + 0.002)−72) = €373.17

Total interest

I = N·A − P = 72·373.2 − 25 000 = €1 868.13

Answer

I = €1 868.13
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 4.751 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 5 500/1.1 = 5 000.00 → Σ = 5 000.00
year 2: 5 500/1.21 = 4 545.45 → Σ = 9 545.45
year 3: 5 500/1.331 = 4 132.23 → Σ = 13 677.69
year 4: 5 500/1.464 = 3 756.57 → Σ = 17 434.26
year 5: 5 500/1.611 = 3 415.07 → Σ = 20 849.33

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 4 + 2 565.74/3 415.07 = 4.751

Answer

DPB = 4.751 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.636 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 31.85 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(30%) = 1 258.53
NPV(35%) = −2 017.99

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 30 + 5·1 258.53/(1 258.53 − (−2 017.99)) = 31.92%
exact: NPV(31.85%) = 0 → IRR = 31.85%

Answer

IRR = 31.85%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: HPR = 9.501 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Purchase price

C = €45.00, i = 0.055, N = 11
€45.00·(1 − 0.5549)/0.055 + €1 000·0.5549 = €364.16 + €554.91 = €919.07

Selling price

C = €45.00, i = 0.05, N = 10
€45.00·(1 − 0.6139)/0.05 + €1 000·0.6139 = €347.48 + €613.91 = €961.39

Holding period return

HPR = (45 + 961.39 − 919.07)/919.07 = 9.501%

Answer

HPR = 9.501%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 6.458 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€950 = €50·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁴)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁴

Solve numerically

P(6%) = €965.35, P(7%) = €932.26
YTM = 6.458%

Answer

YTM = 6.458%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: re = 11 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €13 000 000, E/V = 0.6154, D/V = 0.3846

Debt part of the WACC

0.3846·4%·(1 − 0.2) = 1.231%

Cost of equity

re = (8% − 1.231%)/0.6154 = 11%

Answer

re = 11%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.465 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of debt (YTM)

942 = 40·(1 − (1 + y)−7)/y + 1000/(1 + y)7
y = 5.002%

Market values

D = 8 000·€942 = €7 536 000
V = €15 536 000, E/V = 0.5149, D/V = 0.4851

WACC

WACC = 0.5149·11% + 0.4851·5.002%·(1 − 0.258) = 7.465%

Answer

WACC = 7.465%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 5500 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Contribution margin per unit

p − v = 8 − 4 = €4

Units for the target profit

Q = (F + profit)/(p − v) = (16 000 + 6 000)/4 = 5 500

Answer

Q = 5 500 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 28.57 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 20 000/4 = 5 000

Margin of safety

MS = (7 000 − 5 000)/7 000·100 = 28.57%

Answer

MS = 28.57%

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/corporate-finance