Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…13PV = ?€1 500€1 500€1 500€1 500

An annuity pays €1 500 at the end of each year for 13 years. The interest rate is 10% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.

A = €1 500i = 10%n = 13
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…336€200€200€200FV = ?

You save €200 at the end of every month for 28 years. The account pays 5.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.

A = €2005.4% / 12N = 336
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years012345−20 0006 5007 0004 5007 5007 500

A project costs €20 000 today and returns €6 500, €7 000, €4 500, €7 500, €7 500 at the end of years 1 to 5. The cost of capital is 5%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.

r = 5%CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 6 500CF2 = 7 000CF3 = 4 500CF4 = 7 500CF5 = 7 500
DPB = years
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−50 00020 00035 000

A project costs €50 000 and returns €20 000, €35 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 20 000CF2 = 35 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…16€25€25€25 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 5% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 8 years. The yield to maturity is 9% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 5%YTM = 9%n = 8
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123…9€910€70€70 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 7% matures in 9 years and sells for €910. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 7%n = 9P = €910
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€3 000 000re​ = 9%debt€6 000 000rd​ = 4%T = 21%

A company has equity worth €3 000 000 and debt worth €6 000 000. Its cost of equity is 9%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.

E = €3 000 000D = €6 000 000re = 9%rd = 4%T = 21%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
rf​ = 1.5%, rm​ − rf​ = 4.5%no debtequityβU​ = 0.6D/E = 0.6equityre​ = ?debtT = 30%

A company's business has an unlevered (asset) beta of 0.6. It plans a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.6. The tax rate is 30%, the risk-free rate is 1.5% and the market risk premium is 4.5%. Find the cost of equity re at the new capital structure.

βU = 0.6D/E = 0.6T = 30%rf = 1.5%rm − rf = 4.5%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost1600

A company sells 1 600 units at €8 each. The variable cost is €6 per unit and fixed costs are €1 600. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.

Q = 1 600p = €8v = €6F = €1 600
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €38 per unit, with a variable cost of €30 per unit and fixed costs of €8 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 1 800 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €8 000p = €38v = €30budget = 1 800
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 10655 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Annuity factor

(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.2897)/0.1 = 7.103

Present value

PV = 1 500·7.103 = €10 655.03

Answer

PV = €10 655.03
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 156464 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of deposits

i = 0.054000000000000006/12 = 0.0045
N = 12·28 = 336

Future value of the deposits

FV = A·((1 + i)N − 1)/i = 200·(4.52 − 1)/0.0045 = €156 463.77

Answer

FV = €156 463.77

You paid in €67 200 yourself; the rest is interest.

3.NPV & IRR

Answer: DPB = 3.579 years

Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.

Discounted and cumulative cash flows

year 1: 6 500/1.05 = 6 190.48 → Σ = 6 190.48
year 2: 7 000/1.103 = 6 349.21 → Σ = 12 539.68
year 3: 4 500/1.158 = 3 887.27 → Σ = 16 426.95
year 4: 7 500/1.216 = 6 170.27 → Σ = 22 597.22

Fraction of the last year

DPB = 3 + 3 573.05/6 170.27 = 3.579

Answer

DPB = 3.579 years

The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.267 years).

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 6.023 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(5%) = 793.65
NPV(10%) = −2 892.56

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 5 + 5·793.65/(793.65 − (−2 892.56)) = 6.077%
exact: NPV(6.023%) = 0 → IRR = 6.023%

Answer

IRR = 6.023%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 775.3 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €25.00, i = 0.045, N = 16

Present value of the coupons

€25.00·(1 − 0.4945)/0.045 = €280.85

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.4945 = €494.47

Price

P = €775.32

Answer

P = €775.32

The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 8.469 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€910 = €70·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁹)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁹

Solve numerically

P(8%) = €937.53, P(9%) = €880.10
YTM = 8.469%

Answer

YTM = 8.469%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 5.107 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €9 000 000, E/V = 0.3333, D/V = 0.6667

WACC

WACC = 0.3333·9% + 0.6667·4%·(1 − 0.21) = 5.107%

Answer

WACC = 5.107%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: re = 5.334 %

Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.

Levered beta

βL = 0.6·(1 + 0.7·0.6) = 0.852

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 1.5% + 0.852·4.5% = 5.334%

Answer

re = 5.334%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: DOL = 2

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Total contribution margin

CM = 1 600·(8 − 6) = €3 200

Operating profit

Π = 3 200 − 1 600 = €1 600

DOL

DOL = 3 200/1 600 = 2

Answer

DOL = 2
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 44.44 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 8 000/8 = 1 000

Margin of safety

MS = (1 800 − 1 000)/1 800·100 = 44.44%

Answer

MS = 44.44%

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/corporate-finance