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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
An annuity pays €1 500 at the end of each year for 16 years. The interest rate is 3% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.
A = €1 500i = 3%n = 16
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
You deposit €5 000 at the start of every year for 21 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 4% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 21? Find FV.
A = €5 000i = 4%n = 21
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €50 000 today and returns €16 000 at the end of each year for 4 years. The cost of capital is 8%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
Project A costs €30 000 and returns €16 000, €12 000, €7 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €32 000 and returns €8 000, €12 500, €17 500. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4.5% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 10 years. The yield to maturity is 5% per year. Find the price P of the bond.
F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%YTM = 5%n = 10
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 4% matures in 8 years and sells for €1 145. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 4%n = 8P = €1 145
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €12 000 000 and debt worth €2 000 000. Its cost of equity is 10%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 6% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.
A company's business has an unlevered (asset) beta of 1. It plans a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.25. The tax rate is 21%, the risk-free rate is 3.5% and the market risk premium is 7%. Find the cost of equity re at the new capital structure.
βU = 1D/E = 0.25T = 21%rf = 3.5%rm − rf = 7%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A company sells 12 000 units at €45 each. The variable cost is €30 per unit and fixed costs are €60 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 12 000p = €45v = €30F = €60 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells two products. Product A sells for €17 with a variable cost of €12; product B sells for €35 with a variable cost of €25. They sell in a fixed mix of 3 units of A for every 2 of B. Fixed costs are €7 000 per month. Find the total number of units Q (A and B together) needed to break even.
pA = €17, vA = €12pB = €35, vB = €25A : B = 3 : 2F = €7 000
Q = units
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 18842 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.6232)/0.03 = 12.56
Present value
PV = 1 500·12.56 = €18 841.65
Answer
PV = €18 841.65
2.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 166240 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Ordinary annuity factor
((1 + 0.04)21 − 1)/0.04 = 31.97
Annuity due
Each deposit is invested one year longer.
FV = 5 000·31.97·1.04 = €166 239.85
Answer
FV = €166 239.85
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 3.745 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 16 000/1.08 = 14 814.81 → Σ = 14 814.81
year 2: 16 000/1.166 = 13 717.42 → Σ = 28 532.24
year 3: 16 000/1.26 = 12 701.32 → Σ = 41 233.55
year 4: 16 000/1.36 = 11 760.48 → Σ = 52 994.03
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 3 + 8 766.45/11 760.48 = 3.745
Answer
DPB = 3.745 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.125 years).
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: r* = 4.517 %
Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.
Difference in cash flows
ΔCF0 = −32 000 − (−30 000) = −2 000
ΔCF1 = 8 000 − 16 000 = −8 000
ΔCF2 = 12 500 − 12 000 = 500
ΔCF3 = 17 500 − 7 000 = 10 500
IRR of the difference
NPVΔ(4%) = 104.43
NPVΔ(5%) = −95.24
r* = 4.517%
Answer
r* = 4.517%
Check: at 4.517% both NPVs are €2 424.56.
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: P = 961 €
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Per period
C = €22.50, i = 0.025, N = 20
Present value of the coupons
€22.50·(1 − 0.6103)/0.025 = €350.76
Present value of the face value
€1 000·0.6103 = €610.27
Price
P = €961.03
Answer
P = €961.03
The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: YTM = 2.019 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
€1 145 = €40·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁸)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁸
Solve numerically
P(2%) = €1 146.51, P(3%) = €1 070.20
YTM = 2.019%
Answer
YTM = 2.019%
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 9.249 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €14 000 000, E/V = 0.8571, D/V = 0.1429
WACC
WACC = 0.8571·10% + 0.1429·6%·(1 − 0.21) = 9.249%
Answer
WACC = 9.249%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: re = 11.88 %
Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.
Levered beta
βL = 1·(1 + 0.79·0.25) = 1.198
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 3.5% + 1.198·7% = 11.88%
Answer
re = 11.88%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: DOL = 1.5
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 12 000·(45 − 30) = €180 000
Operating profit
Π = 180 000 − 60 000 = €120 000
DOL
DOL = 180 000/120 000 = 1.5
Answer
DOL = 1.5
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: Q = 1000 units
Break-even with a sales mix: when products sell in a fixed ratio, use the weighted average contribution margin: weight each product's p − v by its share of units. Break-even units = F/(weighted contribution margin), split again in the mix ratio.