laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 6 mP1 = 40 kN at 3 mP2 = 15 kN at 3.5 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 10 mP = 20 kN at 6 mw = 5 kN/m from 3 to 7 m
RA = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FBC in member BC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 5 mheight = 2 mB is 2 m from Avertical load = 60 kN
FBC = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
F: 40 kN →G: 15 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member BG
13member DG
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 5.5 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 6 mw = 4 kN/m from 0 to 6 mx = 5.5 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The marks A to G split the beam into six equal parts. At which mark is the bending moment largest in size, sagging or hogging? Click it in the diagram.
10 kN @ 12 m45 kN @ 4 m6 kN/m, 0–10 m
1A (x = 0 m)
2B (x = 2 m)
3C (x = 4 m)
4D (x = 6 m)
5E (x = 8 m)
6F (x = 10 m)
7G (x = 12 m)
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole length. Find the deflection δ at the free end.
w = 4 kN/mL = 2.5 mE = 11 GPa (timber)I = 36 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δ = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported timber beam of rectangular section, 100 mm wide, carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Its midspan deflection may not exceed span/250. Find the smallest depth hreq of the section.
w = 1 kN/mL = 4.5 mE = 11 GPa (timber)b = 100 mm
hreq = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 2 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)b × h = 40 × 80 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. It must carry 10 kN with a factor of safety of 3 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 10 kNn = 3L = 3 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A channel section lies with its open side up: a base plate 240 mm wide with two upright legs, 110 mm high overall. Base and legs are all 16 mm thick. Find its second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
b = 240 mmh = 110 mmt = 16 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A symmetric I-section has flanges 140 mm wide and 10 mm thick, an overall depth of 420 mm and a web 6 mm thick. It carries a bending moment of 50 kN·m about the axis x. Find the size of the bending stress σj at the junction of the web and the top flange.
A 3.5 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.35, Cr = 0.05 and e₀ = 0.7. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 55 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 115 kPa. A new building adds 25 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 2.5 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 4 m²/year. It lies on impervious rock, with sand above it, so water drains out only at the top. For 60% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.287. How many years t does the layer take to reach 60% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of oil, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water flows at 3 L/s through a pipe 100 m long with an inside diameter of 50 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.028 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the friction head loss hf.
Q = 3 L/sL = 100 mD = 50 mmf = 0.028g = 9.81 m/s²
hf = m
20.Pipe friction & head lossHard
A pipe 200 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm (Darcy friction factor f = 0.025) runs from an open reservoir and discharges as a free jet into the air. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 4 bends (K = 0.3 each) and a valve (K = 2). Use g = 9.81 m/s². How far H must the reservoir surface be above the pipe outlet for a flow rate of 50 L/s?
A trapezoidal clean earth channel has a bottom width of 4 m and side slopes of 2:1 (horizontal:vertical). Water flows uniformly 2.4 m deep. Manning n = 0.022 and the bed slope is S = 0.003. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 4 my = 2.4 mz = 2n = 0.022S = 0.003
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A concrete sewer with an inside diameter of 375 mm (Manning n = 0.013) must reach a self-cleansing velocity of 1 m/s when flowing just full. Find the minimum slope S (in m/m).
D = 375 mmn = 0.013V = 1 m/s
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
A pump with an efficiency of 72% delivers 40 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 32 m. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the shaft power Pshaft needed, in kW.
Q = 40 L/sH = 32 mη = 72%g = 9.81 m/s²
Pshaft = kW
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 100 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 8 m higher. The pipe is 150 m long with an inside diameter of 250 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 4 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The pump efficiency is 80%. Find the shaft power Pshaft in kW.
An annuity pays €2 000 at the end of each year for 17 years. The interest rate is 7% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.
A = €2 000i = 7%n = 17
PV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €300 at the end of every month for 6 years. The account pays 7.2% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €3007.2% / 12N = 72
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €60 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €21 000, €15 000, €13 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.
A project costs €50 000 and returns €31 000, €34 000, €34 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −50 000CF1 = 31 000CF2 = 34 000CF3 = 34 000
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
The battery lifetimes are normally distributed with mean 500 h and standard deviation 40 h. What fraction lies between 502 and 532 h? Give P as a decimal.
μ = 500σ = 40x1 = 502x2 = 532
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
The delivery times are normally distributed with mean 32 min and standard deviation 6 min. Find the value x below which 90% of them lie (the 90th percentile).
μ = 32σ = 6P = 90%
x = min
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 28.75 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 40·3 + 15·3.5
RB = 172.5/6 = 28.75 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 55 − 28.75 = 26.25 kN
Answer
RB = 28.75 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 18 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 5·4 = 20 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 20·6 + 5·4·5
RB = 220/10 = 22 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 40 − 22 = 18 kN
Answer
RA = 18 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FBC = −43.27 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·5 = 60·2 → Cy = 24 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 60 − 24 = 36 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 2/3.606 = 0.5547, cos γ = 3/3.606 = 0.8321
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint C
BC and CD lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 4·6 = 24 kN, acting at x̄ = 3 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 4·6·3
RB = 72/6 = 12 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 24 − 12 = 12 kN
Cut at x = 5.5 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 12·5.5 − 4·5.5·2.75 = 5.5 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 5.5 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: C (x = 4 m)
Largest bending moment: M changes slope wherever the shear force changes, so its peaks sit where the shear force crosses zero: under a point load, inside a distributed load, or over a support of an overhang. At a fixed support of a cantilever the moment is largest at the wall. Compare the size of M at those places, sagging or hogging.
Support reactions
Take moments about one support, then use the vertical force balance.
R1 = 55 kN, R2 = 60 kN
Bending moment at every mark
Sum the moments of all forces on one side of the cut. Sagging is positive, hogging negative.
MA = 0, MB = 98, MC = 172 kN·m, MD = 132, ME = 68, MF = −20, MG = 0
Answer
Mark C: MC = 172 kN·m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δ = 49.32 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 4 N/mm, L = 2500 mm
EI = 3.96 × 10¹¹ N·mm²
Deflection
δ = wL⁴/(8EI) = 4·2500⁴/(8·3.96 × 10¹¹) = 49.32 mm
Answer
δ = 49.32 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: hreq = 147.9 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
bh³/12 = Ireq → h = (12·2.697 × 10⁷/100)1/3 = 147.9 mm
Answer
hreq = 147.9 mm
In practice, choose the next standard depth above this value.
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 150.4 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A rectangle buckles about its weak axis, using the smaller dimension cubed.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 3·10000 = 30000 N
KL = 0.7·3000 = 2100 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·30000·2100²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 34.18 mm
Answer
d = 34.18 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 245.7, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 7.399 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into rectangles
Take the base at full width and the two legs above it (height h − t), so nothing is counted twice.
base: A1 = 240·16 = 3840 mm², y1 = 8 mm
two legs: A2 = 2·16·94 = 3008 mm², y2 = 16 + 94/2 = 63 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·zw + γsat·(z − zw) = 17·4 + 20·2 = 108 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·2 = 19.62 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 108 − 19.62 = 88.38 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 88.38 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ = 126 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·1 + γsat,clay·4
σ = 15·2 + 20·1 + 19·4 = 126 kPa
Answer
σ = 126 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 16.75 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 55 + 25 = 80 kPa ≤ 115 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.05·3.5/(1 + 0.7)·log₁₀(80/55) = 16.75 mm
Answer
S = 16.75 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 0.4484 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H = 2.5 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.287·2.5²/4 = 0.4484 years
Answer
t = 0.4484 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 39.24 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 1/2 = 2 m
A = H·b = 1·2 = 2 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·2·2 = 39.24 kN
Answer
F = 39.24 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 58.27 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 1.5/2 = 2.25 m
A = H·b = 1.5·2 = 3 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 880·9.81·2.25·3 = 58.27 kN
Answer
F = 58.27 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: hf = 6.663 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Mean velocity
A = π·0.05²/4 = 0.001963 m²
V = Q/A = 0.003/0.001963 = 1.528 m/s
Velocity head
V²/(2g) = 1.528²/(2·9.81) = 0.119 m
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.028·(100/0.05)·1.528²/(2·9.81) = 6.663 m
Answer
hf = 6.663 m
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: H = 1.306 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.05/0.04909 = 1.019 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.05288 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.025·200/0.25 = 20
ΣK = 0.5 + 4·0.3 + 2 = 3.7
Energy equation
The outlet jet still carries its velocity head; it is not a loss but it has to be supplied.
H = (1 + 20 + 3.7)·0.05288 = 1.306 m
Answer
H = 1.306 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 66.85 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (4 + 2·2.4)·2.4 = 21.12 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 4 + 2·2.4·√(1 + 2²) = 14.73 m
R = A/P = 1.434 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.022)·1.4342/3·0.0031/2 = 3.165 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 21.12·3.165 = 66.85 m³/s
Answer
Q = 66.85 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.003968 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Hydraulic radius
R = D/4 = 0.375/4 = 0.09375 m
Solve Manning for S
S = (n·V/R2/3)² = (0.013·1/0.2064)² = 0.003968
Answer
S = 0.003968
That is a fall of 3.968 m per kilometre.
23.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 17.44 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.04·32 = 12.56 kW
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/η = 12.56/0.72 = 17.44 kW
Answer
Pshaft = 17.44 kW
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 13.18 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.3166)/0.07 = 9.763
Present value
PV = 2 000·9.763 = €19 526.45
Answer
PV = €19 526.45
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 26917 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €21 600 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −21849 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −60 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 21 000/1.15 = 18 260.87
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 15 000/1.322 = 11 342.16
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 13 000/1.521 = 8 547.71
Add them up
NPV = €−21 849.26
Answer
NPV = €−21 849.26
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 42.89 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(40%) = 1 880.47
NPV(45%) = −1 296.90
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z-scores
z₁ = (502 − 500)/40 = 0.05
z₂ = (532 − 500)/40 = 0.8
Area between
P = Φ(0.8) − Φ(0.05) = 0.7881 − 0.5199 = 0.2682
Answer
P = 0.2682
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 39.69 min
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z for the percentile
Φ(z) = 0.9 → z = 1.282
Back to x
x = 32 + 1.282·6 = 39.69 min
Answer
x = 39.69 min
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