laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 10 mP1 = 10 kN at 1 mP2 = 25 kN at 5 m
RA = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 5 mP = 20 kN at 3.5 mw = 4 kN/m from 2 to 3 m
RA = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FAB in member AB. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 8 mheight = 4 mB is 6 m from Avertical load = 35 kN
FAB = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
B: 25 kN ↓F: 15 kN →
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member BG
13member DG
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
The simply supported beam carries two point loads. Find the maximum bending moment Mmax in the beam.
L = 6 mP1 = 20 kN at 1 mP2 = 70 kN at 5 m
Mmax = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The beam rests on a pin at A and a roller at B and overhangs B by 1.5 m to the free end C. A uniformly distributed load w acts over the whole length A–C. Find the distance xc from A to the point of contraflexure between the supports (where the bending moment changes sign).
L = 9.5 mw = 3 kN/m from 0 to 9.5 msupports at x = 0 and x = 8 m
xc = m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A simply supported beam carries a point load P at a = 1 m from support A. Find the deflection δP under the load.
P = 16 kNa = 1 mL = 3 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 84 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δP = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a point load P at b = 3.5 m from support B. Find the deflection δmid at midspan.
P = 5 kNb = 3.5 mL = 8 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)I = 84 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmid = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 1.5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)d = 40 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A solid round column of length L made of steel is pinned at both ends. It must carry 55 kN with a factor of safety of 3 against buckling. Find the smallest diameter d.
P = 55 kNn = 3L = 5 mE = 200 GPa (steel)
d = mm
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
Find the second moment of area Ix of the T-section about the horizontal axis x through its centroid.
bf = 300 mmtf = 30 mmtw = 8 mmhw = 140 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A symmetric I-section has flanges 180 mm wide and 14 mm thick, an overall depth of 480 mm and a web 6 mm thick. It carries a bending moment of 150 kN·m about the axis x. Find the size of the bending stress σj at the junction of the web and the top flange.
A 2.5 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.3, Cr = 0.02 and e₀ = 0.7. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 85 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 165 kPa. A new building adds 60 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 7 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 2 m²/year. It lies on impervious rock, with sand above it, so water drains out only at the top. For 60% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.287. How many years t does the layer take to reach 60% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 3 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
d = 3 mH = 2 mb = 1 mρ = 1000 kg/m³g = 9.81 m/s²
F = kN
18.Hydrostatic forceHard
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of seawater, with its top edge 0.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 1 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 100 m long, with an inside diameter of 75 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.03 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
V = 1 m/sL = 100 mD = 75 mmf = 0.03ρ = 1000 kg/m³
Δp = kPa
20.Pipe friction & head lossHard
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 600 m long with an inside diameter of 300 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.015. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 2 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 2) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What difference in water level Δz between the reservoirs gives a flow rate of 80 L/s?
A trapezoidal unfinished concrete channel has a bottom width of 5 m and side slopes of 2:1 (horizontal:vertical). Water flows uniformly 1.2 m deep. Manning n = 0.014 and the bed slope is S = 0.003. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 5 my = 1.2 mz = 2n = 0.014S = 0.003
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A concrete sewer with an inside diameter of 300 mm (Manning n = 0.013) must reach a self-cleansing velocity of 1 m/s when flowing just full. Find the minimum slope S (in m/m).
D = 300 mmn = 0.013V = 1 m/s
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
A pump with an efficiency of 70% delivers 25 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 14 m. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the shaft power Pshaft needed, in kW.
Q = 25 L/sH = 14 mη = 70%g = 9.81 m/s²
Pshaft = kW
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 80 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 14 m higher. The pipe is 200 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 6 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The pump efficiency is 80%. Find the shaft power Pshaft in kW.
You need €10 000 in 2 years. An account pays 5% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.
FV = €10 0005% / 4n = 2
PV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €300 at the end of every month for 16 years. The account pays 5.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €3005.4% / 12N = 192
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
A machine costs €40 000 today. It generates €15 000 at the end of each year for 3 years and can then be sold for €10 000. The cost of capital is 6%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €40 000CF = €15 000S = €10 000n = 3r = 6%
NPV = €
28.NPV & IRRHard
An investment of €40 000 returns €5 000 at the end of each year for 9 years. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
C0 = €40 000CF = €5 000n = 9
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
The bag weights are normally distributed with mean 250 g and standard deviation 5 g. What fraction lies between 242.75 and 257.75 g? Give P as a decimal.
μ = 250σ = 5x1 = 242.75x2 = 257.75
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
Hole diameters D are normal with mean 25.04 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm. Shaft diameters d are independent and normal with mean 25 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm. A randomly chosen shaft fits when D − d > 0. Find the probability P that it fits. Round z to two decimals.
hole: μ = 25.04 mm, σ = 0.02 mmshaft: μ = 25 mm, σ = 0.02 mm
P =
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 21.5 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 10·1 + 25·5
RB = 135/10 = 13.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 35 − 13.5 = 21.5 kN
Answer
RA = 21.5 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 8 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 4·1 = 4 kN, acting at x̄ = 2.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 20·3.5 + 4·1·2.5
RB = 80/5 = 16 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 24 − 16 = 8 kN
Answer
RA = 8 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FAB = −15.77 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·8 = 35·6 → Cy = 26.25 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 35 − 26.25 = 8.75 kN
Joint A
Assume every member is in tension (pulling away from the joint). Only AB has a vertical component at A.
sin α = 4/7.211 = 0.5547
ΣFy = 0: Ay + FAB·sin α = 0
FAB = −8.75/0.5547 = −15.77 kN
Answer
FAB = −15.77 kN (compression)
4.Truss: method of joints
Answer: member CG
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint C
BC and CD lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 20·1 + 70·5
RB = 370/6 = 61.67 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 90 − 61.67 = 28.33 kN
Moment under each load
Keep the part left of each load.
under P1: M = RA·1 = 28.33·1 = 28.33 kN·m
under P2: M = RB·1 = 61.67·1 = 61.67 kN·m
Largest value
Mmax = 61.67 kN·m (under P2)
Answer
Mmax = 61.67 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: xc = 7.719 m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam, including the load on the overhang.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 3·9.5 = 28.5 kN, acting at x̄ = 4.75 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·8 = 3·9.5·4.75
RB = 135.4/8 = 16.92 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 28.5 − 16.92 = 11.58 kN
Zero moment
Between the supports M(x) = RA·x − w·x²/2. Apart from x = 0 it is zero at x = 2RA/w.
RA·xc − w·xc²/2 = 0
xc = 2·11.58/3 = 7.719 m
Answer
xc = 7.719 m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δP = 1.209 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
P = 16000 N, a = 1000 mm, b = 2000 mm, L = 3000 mm
EI = 5.88 × 10¹² N·mm²
Deflection under the load
δP = Pa²b²/(3EIL) = 16000·1000²·2000²/(3·5.88 × 10¹²·3000) = 1.209 mm
Answer
δP = 1.209 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmid = 8.867 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Required critical load
Pcr = n·P = 3·55000 = 165000 N
KL = 1·5000 = 5000 mm
Solve for the diameter
d = (64·n·P·(KL)²/(π³E))^(1/4) = (64·165000·5000²/(π³·200000))^(1/4) = 80.78 mm
Answer
d = 80.78 mm
Check: the slenderness KL/r is 247.6, so the column is slender and Euler applies.
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 9.701 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into two rectangles
Measure every y from the bottom edge.
flange: Af = 300·30 = 9000 mm², yf = 140 + 30/2 = 155 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·zw + γsat·(z − zw) = 17·4 + 20·6 = 188 kPa
Answer
σ = 188 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 83.92 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·1 + γsat,sand·4 + γsat,clay·3.5
σ = 16.5·1 + 19.5·4 + 18·3.5 = 157.5 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·7.5 = 73.58 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 157.5 − 73.58 = 83.92 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 83.92 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 6.822 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 85 + 60 = 145 kPa ≤ 165 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.02·2.5/(1 + 0.7)·log₁₀(145/85) = 6.822 mm
Answer
S = 6.822 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 7.031 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H = 7 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.287·7²/2 = 7.031 years
Answer
t = 7.031 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 78.48 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 3 + 2/2 = 4 m
A = H·b = 2·1 = 2 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·4·2 = 78.48 kN
Answer
F = 78.48 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 120.7 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 0.5 + 3/2 = 2 m
A = H·b = 3·2 = 6 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1025·9.81·2·6 = 120.7 kN
Answer
F = 120.7 kN
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δp = 20 kPa
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.03·(100/0.075)·1²/(2·9.81) = 2.039 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Δp = ρ·g·hf = 1000·9.81·2.039 = 20000 Pa = 20 kPa
Answer
Δp = 20 kPa
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: Δz = 2.226 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.08/0.07069 = 1.132 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.06529 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.015·600/0.3 = 30
ΣK = 0.5 + 2·0.3 + 2 + 1.0 = 4.1
Total head loss
hf = 30·0.06529 = 1.959 m
hm = 4.1·0.06529 = 0.2677 m
Δz = hf + hm = 2.226 m
Answer
Δz = 2.226 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 31.34 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (5 + 2·1.2)·1.2 = 8.88 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 5 + 2·1.2·√(1 + 2²) = 10.37 m
R = A/P = 0.8566 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.014)·0.85662/3·0.0031/2 = 3.529 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 8.88·3.529 = 31.34 m³/s
Answer
Q = 31.34 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.005343 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Hydraulic radius
R = D/4 = 0.3/4 = 0.075 m
Solve Manning for S
S = (n·V/R2/3)² = (0.013·1/0.1778)² = 0.005343
Answer
S = 0.005343
That is a fall of 5.343 m per kilometre.
23.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 4.905 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.025·14 = 3.433 kW
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/η = 3.433/0.7 = 4.905 kW
Answer
Pshaft = 4.905 kW
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 23.79 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Rate and number of periods
i = 0.05/4 = 0.0125
N = 4·2 = 8
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 10 000/1.104 = €9 053.98
Answer
PV = €9 053.98
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 91203 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €57 600 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 8491 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of the yearly cash flows
15 000·2.673 = 40 095.18
Present value of the salvage value
10 000/1.191 = 8 396.19
NPV
NPV = −40 000 + 40 095.18 + 8 396.19 = €8 491.37
Answer
NPV = €8 491.37
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 2.423 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Required annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−9)/i = 40 000/5 000 = 8
Solve for the rate
The annuity factor falls as the rate rises; bracket the rate and narrow down.
i = 2%: 8.162
i = 3%: 7.786
IRR = 2.423%
Answer
IRR = 2.423%
29.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8659
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the difference
μ = 25.04 − 25 = 0.04 mm, σ = 0.02828 mm
Standardise
z = (0 − 0.04)/0.02828 = −1.41
Probability
P = 1 − Φ(−1.41) = 0.9207
Answer
P = 0.9207
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