laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RA.
L = 5 mP1 = 50 kN at 1.5 mP2 = 40 kN at 3 m
RA = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 5 mP = 50 kN at 4 mw = 10 kN/m from 2 to 5 m
RB = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FAC in member AC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 8 mheight = 3 mB is 6 m from Avertical load = 55 kN
FAC = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
B: 30 kN ↓D: 10 kN ↓F: 10 kN ↓F: 15 kN →
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member FC
13member HC
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
Find the bending moment Mx at the section x = 7.5 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 10 mw = 10 kN/m from 0 to 10 mx = 7.5 m
Mx = kN·m
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span and a point load P. Find the maximum bending moment Mmax in the beam.
L = 10 mP = 40 kN at 9 mw = 2 kN/m from 0 to 10 m
Mmax = kN·m
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole length. Find the deflection δ at the free end.
w = 2 kN/mL = 3 mE = 11 GPa (timber)I = 57 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δ = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported beam carries a uniformly distributed load w and a point load P at midspan. Using superposition, find the midspan deflection δmax.
P = 18 kNw = 5 kN/mL = 2.5 mE = 11 GPa (timber)I = 12 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δmax = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)b × h = 30 × 100 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at both ends. Find its slenderness and the critical buckling stress σcr from Euler’s formula.
L = 3 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)d = 60 mm
σcr = MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A channel section lies with its open side up: a base plate 160 mm wide with two upright legs, 200 mm high overall. Base and legs are all 8 mm thick. Find the height ȳ of the centroid above the bottom edge.
b = 160 mmh = 200 mmt = 8 mm
ȳ = mm
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A 200 mm × 200 mm plate has a rectangular cut-out 40 mm wide and 40 mm high, centred on the vertical centre line with its centre 80 mm above the bottom. Find the second moment of area Ix about the horizontal axis through the centroid.
b = 200 mmh = 200 mmcut-out: 40 × 40 mmhole centre: y = 80 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soilMedium
For the soil profile shown, find the total vertical stress σ at point X.
A 7.5 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.3, Cr = 0.04 and e₀ = 1.05. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 85 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 145 kPa. A new building adds 140 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 9.5 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 4 m²/year. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. For 50% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.197. How many years t does the layer take to reach 50% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 0.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 1 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of oil, with its top edge 1.5 m below the surface. Find the depth ycp of the centre of pressure below the surface.
d = 1.5 mH = 2 mb = 1 mρ = 880 kg/m³g = 9.81 m/s²
ycp = m
19.Pipe friction & head lossMedium
Water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) flows at 0.9 m/s through a horizontal pipe, 150 m long, with an inside diameter of 150 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.03 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pressure drop Δp over the pipe in kPa.
Two open reservoirs are joined by a pipe 150 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 4 bends (K = 0.3 each), a valve (K = 10) and the exit into the lower reservoir (K = 1.0). Use g = 9.81 m/s². What difference in water level Δz between the reservoirs gives a flow rate of 100 L/s?
A trapezoidal grass-lined earth channel has a bottom width of 3.5 m and side slopes of 3:1 (horizontal:vertical). Water flows uniformly 0.6 m deep. Manning n = 0.03 and the bed slope is S = 0.002. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 3.5 my = 0.6 mz = 3n = 0.03S = 0.002
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A rectangular gravel channel 6 m wide must carry 2.2 m³/s in uniform flow at a depth of 0.5 m. Manning n = 0.025. Find the required bed slope S (in m/m).
Q = 2.2 m³/sb = 6 my = 0.5 mn = 0.025
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
In a test, a pump delivers 80 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 40 m while its shaft takes 41.9 kW. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the pump efficiency η in percent.
Q = 80 L/sH = 40 mPshaft = 41.9 kWg = 9.81 m/s²
η = %
24.Pumps & pump powerHard
A pump moves 50 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 12 m higher. The pipe is 300 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.022; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 8 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The pump efficiency is 72%. Find the shaft power Pshaft in kW.
You invest €3 000 at a nominal rate of 4.8% per year, compounded quarterly. Find the value FV of the investment after 10 years.
PV = €3 0004.8% / 4n = 10
FV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €150 at the end of every month for 28 years. The account pays 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €1503.6% / 12N = 336
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
An investment of €30 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €12 000, €9 000, €7 000, €8 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.
An investment of €25 000 returns €6 000 at the end of each year for 5 years. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
C0 = €25 000CF = €6 000n = 5
IRR = %
29.Normal distributionMedium
The delivery times are normally distributed with mean 32 min and standard deviation 6 min. What fraction lies between 20 and 39.2 min? Give P as a decimal.
μ = 32σ = 6x1 = 20x2 = 39.2
P =
30.Normal distributionHard
The exam scores are normally distributed with mean 65 points and standard deviation 10 points. Drag the cut-off so the shaded bottom 25% is to the left of it. Find the cut-off x.
μ = 65 pointsσ = 10 points25%
x = points
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 51 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 50·1.5 + 40·3
RB = 195/5 = 39 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 90 − 39 = 51 kN
Answer
RA = 51 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 61 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 10·3 = 30 kN, acting at x̄ = 3.5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 50·4 + 10·3·3.5
RB = 305/5 = 61 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 80 − 61 = 19 kN
Answer
RB = 61 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FAC = 27.5 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·8 = 55·6 → Cy = 41.25 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 55 − 41.25 = 13.75 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 3/3.606 = 0.8321, cos γ = 2/3.606 = 0.5547
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint G
FG and GH lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 10·10 = 100 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 10·10·5
RB = 500/10 = 50 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 100 − 50 = 50 kN
Cut at x = 7.5 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
M = RA·x − (each load left of the cut × its distance to the cut)
Mx = 50·7.5 − 10·7.5·3.75 = 93.75 kN·m
Answer
Mx = 93.75 kN·m
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: Mmax = 49 kN·m
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut. Maximum moment: since dM/dx = V, the bending moment has its peak where the shear force passes through zero, either at a point load or inside a distributed load.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 2·10 = 20 kN, acting at x̄ = 5 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·10 = 40·9 + 2·10·5
RB = 460/10 = 46 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 60 − 46 = 14 kN
Where is V = 0?
RA − w·x0 = 0 → x0 = 14/2 = 7 m
Maximum moment
Mmax = RA·x0 − w·x0²/2 = 14·7 − 2·7²/2 = 49 kN·m
Answer
Mmax = 49 kN·m
It occurs at x = 7 m from A.
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δ = 32.3 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 2 N/mm, L = 3000 mm
EI = 6.27 × 10¹¹ N·mm²
Deflection
δ = wL⁴/(8EI) = 2·3000⁴/(8·6.27 × 10¹¹) = 32.3 mm
Answer
δ = 32.3 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: δmax = 63.66 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
P = 18000 N, w = 5 N/mm, L = 2500 mm, EI = 1.32 × 10¹¹ N·mm²
Each load on its own
δP = PL³/(48EI) = 18000·2500³/(48·1.32 × 10¹¹) = 44.39 mm
δw = 5wL⁴/(384EI) = 5·5·2500⁴/(384·1.32 × 10¹¹) = 19.27 mm
Add them
δmax = 44.39 + 19.27 = 63.66 mm
Answer
δmax = 63.66 mm
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 12.69 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A rectangle buckles about its weak axis, using the smaller dimension cubed.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A round section has the same I about every axis.
I = πd⁴/64 = π·60⁴/64 = 636173 mm⁴
Radius of gyration and slenderness
A = 2827 mm²
r = √(I/A) = √(636173/2827) = 15 mm
KL = 0.5·3000 = 1500 mm
KL/r = 1500/15 = 100
Critical stress
σcr = π²E/(KL/r)² = π²·70000/100² = 69.09 MPa
Answer
σcr = 69.09 MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: ȳ = 74.59 mm
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Split into rectangles
Take the base at full width and the two legs above it (height h − t), so nothing is counted twice.
base: A1 = 160·8 = 1280 mm², y1 = 4 mm
two legs: A2 = 2·8·192 = 3072 mm², y2 = 8 + 192/2 = 104 mm
Centroid
ȳ = (1280·4 + 3072·104)/4352 = 74.59 mm
Answer
ȳ = 74.59 mm
12.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 132.5 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Sections with holes: treat a hole as a negative area. The centroid is ȳ = (A₁y₁ − A₂y₂)/(A₁ − A₂), with A₁, y₁ for the full plate and A₂, y₂ for the hole. For the second moment of area about the centroidal axis, use the parallel-axis theorem for each part and subtract the hole: I = (Ic1 + A₁d₁²) − (Ic2 + A₂d₂²), where d is the distance from each part's own centroid to the axis through ȳ. A rectangle has Ic = bh³/12 and a circle Ic = πd⁴/64.
Centroid
ȳ = (40000·100 − 1600·80)/(40000 − 1600) = 100.8 mm
Full plate about ȳ
200·200³/12 + 40000·−0.8333² = 133.4 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Hole about ȳ
40·40³/12 + 1600·−20.83² = 0.9078 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Subtract
Ix = 132.5 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Answer
Ix = 132.5 × 10⁶ mm⁴
13.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ = 129.5 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·5 = 49.05 kPa
Answer
u = 49.05 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 243.4 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 85 + 140 = 225 kPa > 145 kPa
Settlement
Recompression up to σ′p, virgin compression beyond it.
S = 0.04·7.5/(1 + 1.05)·log₁₀(145/85) + 0.3·7.5/(1 + 1.05)·log₁₀(225/145)
S = 33.94 + 209.4 = 243.4 mm
Answer
S = 243.4 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 1.111 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H/2 = 9.5/2 = 4.75 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.197·4.75²/4 = 1.111 years
Answer
t = 1.111 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 9.81 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 0.5 + 1/2 = 1 m
A = H·b = 1·1 = 1 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·1·1 = 9.81 kN
Answer
F = 9.81 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: ycp = 2.633 m
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 1.5 + 2/2 = 2.5 m
A = H·b = 2·1 = 2 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 880·9.81·2.5·2 = 43.16 kN
Centre of pressure
Pressure grows with depth, so the resultant acts below the centroid.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Head loss
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.03·(150/0.15)·0.9²/(2·9.81) = 1.239 m
Pressure drop
The pipe is horizontal and the velocity does not change, so the energy equation reduces to Δp = ρ·g·hf.
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.1/0.03142 = 3.183 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.5164 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.025·150/0.2 = 18.75
ΣK = 0.5 + 4·0.3 + 10 + 1.0 = 12.7
Total head loss
hf = 18.75·0.5164 = 9.683 m
hm = 12.7·0.5164 = 6.559 m
Δz = hf + hm = 16.24 m
Answer
Δz = 16.24 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 2.725 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (3.5 + 3·0.6)·0.6 = 3.18 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 3.5 + 2·0.6·√(1 + 3²) = 7.295 m
R = A/P = 0.4359 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.03)·0.43592/3·0.0021/2 = 0.857 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 3.18·0.857 = 2.725 m³/s
Answer
Q = 2.725 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.00104 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.08·40 = 31.39 kW
Efficiency
η = Ph/Pshaft = 31.39/41.9 = 74.92%
Answer
η = 74.92%
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pshaft = 11.78 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €50 400 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −3583 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of each cash flow
CF0 = −30 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 12 000/1.15 = 10 434.78
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 9 000/1.322 = 6 805.29
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 7 000/1.521 = 4 602.61
CF4/(1 + 0.15)4 = 8 000/1.749 = 4 574.03
Add them up
NPV = €−3 583.28
Answer
NPV = €−3 583.28
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 6.402 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Required annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−5)/i = 25 000/6 000 = 4.167
Solve for the rate
The annuity factor falls as the rate rises; bracket the rate and narrow down.
i = 6%: 4.212
i = 7%: 4.1
IRR = 6.402%
Answer
IRR = 6.402%
29.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8622
Normal distribution: convert a value x to a z-score, z = (x − μ)/σ, which counts standard deviations from the mean. A z-table (or Φ(z)) gives the area to the left of z, which is P(X < x). The area to the right is 1 − Φ(z), and the area between two values is the difference of their two areas.
z-scores
z₁ = (20 − 32)/6 = −2
z₂ = (39.2 − 32)/6 = 1.2
Area between
P = Φ(1.2) − Φ(−2) = 0.8849 − 0.02275 = 0.8622
Answer
P = 0.8622
30.Normal distribution
Answer: x = 58.3 points
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left
Φ(z) = 0.25
z from the table
z ≈ −0.67
Back to the original units
x = 65 − 0.67·10 = 58.3 points
Answer
x = 58.3 points
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