Investments and Valuation: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 8 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problems Back to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value: FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ
Present value: PV = FV/(1 + i)ⁿ
Several periods per year: i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value: PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)⁻ⁿ]/i
Annuity, future value: FV = PMT·[(1 + i)ⁿ − 1]/i

Method

Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price: P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ
Semi-annual: C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield: C/P
Price and yield: yield up → price down

Method

Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM: r_e = r_f + β·(r_m − r_f)
WACC: E/V·r_e + D/V·r_d·(1 − T)
Firm value: V = E + D

NPV & IRR

Net present value: NPV = −C₀ + Σ CF_t/(1 + r)^t
Equal cash flows: NPV = −C₀ + CF·[1 − (1 + r)⁻ⁿ]/r
Internal rate of return: the r at which NPV = 0
Decision: accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CF_t/(1 + r)^t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium

You need €40 000 in 4 years. An account pays 4.8% per year, compounded quarterly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €40 0004.8% / 4n = 4

PV = €

2.Time value of moneyHard

You deposit €6 000 at the start of every year for 11 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 5% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 11? Find FV.

A = €6 000i = 5%n = 11

FV = €

3.Bond pricing & yieldMedium

You buy a bond with 9 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 4.5%) when its yield to maturity is 2.5%. One year later, just after receiving the first coupon, you sell it when the yield to maturity is 4%. Find your holding period return HPR in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%n = 9y₀ = 2.5%y₁ = 4%

HPR = %

4.Bond pricing & yieldHard

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 8 years. It sells for €767. Find its yield to maturity YTM as an annual rate (twice the half-yearly yield), in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 4% (2×)n = 8P = €767

YTM = %

5.CAPM & WACCMedium

A company has equity worth €3 000 000 and debt worth €4 000 000. Its WACC is 6.77%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3% and the tax rate is 30%. Find the cost of equity r_e.

E = €3 000 000D = €4 000 000WACC = 6.77%r_d = 3%T = 30%

r_e = %

6.CAPM & WACCHard

A company's shares have a beta of 0.9 at its current debt-to-equity ratio of 0.25. It plans to raise its debt-to-equity ratio to 1.25. The tax rate is 28%, the risk-free rate 3.5% and the market risk premium 4%. Find the cost of equity r_e after the change.

β_L = 0.9D/E₁ = 0.25D/E₂ = 1.25T = 28%r_f = 3.5%r_m − r_f = 4%

r_e = %

7.NPV & IRRMedium

An investment of €20 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €5 000, €9 000, €5 000. The cost of capital is 9%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 9%CF₀ = −20 000CF₁ = 5 000CF₂ = 9 000CF₃ = 5 000

NPV = €

8.NPV & IRRHard

A project costs €25 000 and returns €14 500, €9 000, €8 500, €8 500 at the end of years 1 to 4. Cash flows can be reinvested at the cost of capital of 8%. Find the modified internal rate of return MIRR in percent.

r = 8%CF₀ = −25 000CF₁ = 14 500CF₂ = 9 000CF₃ = 8 500CF₄ = 8 500

MIRR = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 33050 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.048/4 = 0.012

N = 4·4 = 16

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)^N = 40 000/1.21 = €33 050.02

Answer

PV = €33 050.02

2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 89503 €

Ordinary annuity factor

((1 + 0.05)¹¹ − 1)/0.05 = 14.21

Annuity due

Each deposit is invested one year longer.

FV = 6 000·14.21·1.05 = €89 502.76

Answer

FV = €89 502.76

3.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: HPR = −6.965 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Purchase price

C = €45.00, i = 0.025, N = 9

€45.00·(1 − 0.8007)/0.025 + €1 000·0.8007 = €358.69 + €800.73 = €1 159.42

Selling price

C = €45.00, i = 0.04, N = 8

€45.00·(1 − 0.7307)/0.04 + €1 000·0.7307 = €302.97 + €730.69 = €1 033.66

Holding period return

HPR = (45 + 1 033.66 − 1 159.42)/1 159.42 = −6.965%

Answer

HPR = −6.965%

4.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 7.999 %

Per period

C = €20.00, N = 16

Solve numerically

i = 4% per half-year

YTM

YTM = 2·4% = 7.999%

Answer

YTM = 7.999%

5.CAPM & WACC

Answer: r_e = 13 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: r_e = r_f + β·(r_m − r_f). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·r_e + D/V·r_d·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €7 000 000, E/V = 0.4286, D/V = 0.5714

Debt part of the WACC

0.5714·3%·(1 − 0.3) = 1.2%

Cost of equity

r_e = (6.77% − 1.2%)/0.4286 = 13%

Answer

r_e = 13%

6.CAPM & WACC

Answer: r_e = 9.297 %

Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. β_L = β_U·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where β_U is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.

Unlever the beta

β_U = 0.9/(1 + 0.72·0.25) = 0.7627

Relever at the new D/E

β_L = 0.7627·(1 + 0.72·1.25) = 1.449

Cost of equity (CAPM)

r_e = 3.5% + 1.449·4% = 9.297%

Answer

r_e = 9.297%

7.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −3977 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF₀ = −20 000

CF₁/(1 + 0.09)¹ = 5 000/1.09 = 4 587.16

CF₂/(1 + 0.09)² = 9 000/1.188 = 7 575.12

CF₃/(1 + 0.09)³ = 5 000/1.295 = 3 860.92

Add them up

NPV = €−3 976.81

Answer

NPV = €−3 976.81

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

8.NPV & IRR

Answer: MIRR = 16.75 %

Modified IRR: compound every inflow forward to the end of the project at the reinvestment rate (usually the cost of capital) to get the terminal value TV. MIRR is the rate that turns the initial investment into TV: MIRR = (TV/C₀)^(1/n) − 1.

Terminal value of the inflows

14 500·1.08³ = 18 265.82

9 000·1.08² = 10 497.60

8 500·1.08¹ = 9 180.00

8 500·1.08⁰ = 8 500.00

TV = 46 443.42

MIRR

MIRR = (46 443.42/25 000)^1/4 − 1 = 16.75%

Answer

MIRR = 16.75%

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/investments-and-valuation