Medical Sciences: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 14 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Evidence-based practice statistics

Sensitivity and specificity
Se = a/(a + c), Sp = d/(b + d)
Predictive values
PPV = a/(a + b), NPV = d/(c + d)
Accuracy
(a + d)/n
Likelihood ratios
LR+ = Se/(1 − Sp), LR− = (1 − Se)/Sp
PPV at prevalence p
Se·p / (Se·p + (1 − Sp)(1 − p))
Odds
odds = p/(1 − p); p = odds/(1 + odds); post-test odds = pre-test odds × LR
Risk measures
RR = EER/CER, ARR = CER − EER, RRR = ARR/CER
Number needed to treat
NNT = 1/ARR, rounded up; NNH = 1/(EER − CER)
Odds ratio
OR = ad/(bc)
Incidence rate
new cases / person-time

Method

  1. Draw the 2 × 2 table and label a, b, c and d before you calculate.
  2. Read sensitivity and specificity down the columns, predictive values along the rows.
  3. For another prevalence, imagine 10 000 people and fill the table with Se, Sp and the prevalence.
  4. For a likelihood ratio, convert the probability to odds, multiply, and convert back.
  5. For a trial, find EER and CER first; then RR = EER/CER, ARR = CER − EER and NNT = 1/ARR rounded up.

2Practice problems

1.Human anatomyMedium

Which structure connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

  1. AAuditory (Eustachian) tube
  2. BNasolacrimal duct
  3. CCochlear duct
  4. DExternal acoustic meatus
2.Human anatomyHard

When a patient stands on the right leg only, the left side of the pelvis drops (positive Trendelenburg sign). Which nerve is most likely damaged?

  1. ARight inferior gluteal nerve
  2. BRight femoral nerve
  3. CLeft superior gluteal nerve
  4. DRight superior gluteal nerve
3.Human physiologyMedium

The hormone secretin is released when acid enters the duodenum. What is its main effect?

  1. AAcid secretion from the stomach
  2. BContraction of the gallbladder
  3. CBicarbonate secretion from the pancreas
  4. DInsulin release from the endocrine pancreas
4.Human physiologyHard

A patient with small-cell lung cancer has low plasma sodium and low plasma osmolality but inappropriately concentrated urine. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. APrimary hyperaldosteronism
  2. BSyndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
  3. CCranial diabetes insipidus
  4. DAddison's disease with high aldosterone
5.MicrobiologyMedium

MRSA is resistant to methicillin because it has:

  1. AAn efflux pump for every antibiotic
  2. BAn altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)
  3. CNo cell wall at all
  4. DA polysaccharide capsule that blocks the entry of all beta-lactams
6.MicrobiologyHard

A deep, dirty wound becomes swollen and very painful, and gas can be felt under the skin. Which organism is most likely?

  1. AClostridium perfringens
  2. BStreptococcus pneumoniae
  3. CNeisseria gonorrhoeae
  4. DBordetella pertussis
7.PharmacologyMedium

How does metformin mainly lower blood glucose?

  1. AIt blocks glucose absorption in the kidney
  2. BIt reduces glucose production by the liver
  3. CIt stimulates insulin release from the pancreas
  4. DIt replaces missing insulin
8.PharmacologyHard

A patient is switched from oral to intravenous morphine. Why is the IV dose lower than the oral dose?

  1. AThe oral route causes tolerance faster than the IV route
  2. BIV morphine is a stronger chemical form of the drug
  3. COral morphine has a large first-pass effect, so less reaches the blood
  4. DIV morphine is excreted much more slowly by the kidney than oral morphine
9.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

Practice values: Na⁺ 137 mmol/L, glucose 15.5 mmol/L and urea 10.6 mmol/L. Calculate the serum osmolality Osm = 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea to the nearest whole number.

Na⁺ 137 mmol/Lglucose 15.5 mmol/Lurea 10.6 mmol/L
Osm = mOsm/kg
10.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
pH7.357.457.19PaCO₂mmHg354519HCO₃⁻mmol/L22267appropriate compensationadded respiratory acidosisadded respiratory alkalosis

A practice gas shows a metabolic acidosis: pH 7.19, PaCO₂ 19 mmHg (2.5 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L. Compare the measured PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula. Click your interpretation.

pH 7.19PaCO₂ 19 mmHg (2.5 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L
  1. 1appropriate compensation
  2. 2added respiratory acidosis
  3. 3added respiratory alkalosis
11.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVatrial flutter, 3:1 conductionatrial flutter, 2:1 conductionatrial flutter, 4:1 conductionnormal sinus rhythm

Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1atrial flutter, 3:1 conduction
  2. 2atrial flutter, 2:1 conduction
  3. 3atrial flutter, 4:1 conduction
  4. 4normal sinus rhythm
12.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVthird-degree (complete) AV blocksecond-degree AV block type IIidioventricular rhythmpaced rhythm, failure to capture

This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1third-degree (complete) AV block
  2. 2second-degree AV block type II
  3. 3idioventricular rhythm
  4. 4paced rhythm, failure to capture
13.Evidence-based practice statisticsMedium
eventno eventtotaltreatment1758251000abcontrol110330440cd

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). In a randomised trial, 1000 patients received a new treatment and 440 received the control treatment. The table shows how many in each group had the outcome (an unwanted event such as a stroke). Find the number needed to treat NNT to prevent one event. Round up to a whole number of patients.

treatment: 175/1000control: 110/440
NNT =
14.Evidence-based practice statisticsHard
testdisease presentdisease absenttotalpositive?negativetotal10 000

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). 10 000 people are screened with a test of sensitivity 86% and specificity 91%. The prevalence of the disease is 18%. How many positive results n₊ are expected in total?

N = 10 000p = 18%Se = 86%Sp = 91%
n₊ =

3Solutions

1.Human anatomy

Answer: A · Auditory (Eustachian) tube

Why this is the answer

The auditory tube equalises air pressure on both sides of the eardrum. In children it is shorter and more horizontal, which favours middle ear infections.

Answer

A · Auditory (Eustachian) tube
2.Human anatomy

Answer: D · Right superior gluteal nerve

Why this is the answer

The superior gluteal nerve supplies gluteus medius and minimus. If those of the standing (right) leg are weak, the pelvis sags on the opposite, unsupported side.

Answer

D · Right superior gluteal nerve
3.Human physiology

Answer: C · Bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas

Why this is the answer

Secretin stimulates pancreatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid, which neutralises acidic chyme so intestinal enzymes can work.

Answer

C · Bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas
4.Human physiology

Answer: B · Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

Why this is the answer

In SIADH excess ADH makes the kidneys retain water, diluting the plasma while urine stays concentrated. Small-cell lung cancer can secrete ADH.

Answer

B · Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
5.Microbiology

Answer: B · An altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)

Why this is the answer

The mecA gene codes for PBP2a, which has low affinity for beta-lactams, so the bacterium can keep building its cell wall despite methicillin.

Answer

B · An altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)
6.Microbiology

Answer: A · Clostridium perfringens

Why this is the answer

Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene in poorly oxygenated wounds. Its toxins destroy muscle and its metabolism produces gas, felt as crepitus. Urgent surgery and antibiotics are needed.

Answer

A · Clostridium perfringens
7.Pharmacology

Answer: B · It reduces glucose production by the liver

Why this is the answer

Metformin mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves insulin sensitivity. Because it does not stimulate insulin release, hypoglycaemia is rare when used alone.

Answer

B · It reduces glucose production by the liver
8.Pharmacology

Answer: C · Oral morphine has a large first-pass effect, so less reaches the blood

Why this is the answer

Much of an oral morphine dose is metabolised by the liver before reaching the systemic circulation. Equianalgesic tables are used, so the IV dose is a fraction of the oral dose.

Answer

C · Oral morphine has a large first-pass effect, so less reaches the blood
9.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: Osm = 300 mOsm/kg

Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.

Calculated osmolality

Osm = 2·137 + 15.5 + 10.6 = 300.1 ≈ 300 mOsm/kg

Answer

Osm = 300 mOsm/kg
10.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: appropriate compensation

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Expected PaCO₂

1.5·7 + 8 = 18.5 → 16.5–20.5 mmHg

Compare

measured: 19 mmHg → appropriate compensation

Answer

appropriate compensation
11.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: atrial flutter, 3:1 conduction

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 15 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 15 ≈ 100 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.60 s.
3. P waves: none; regular sawtooth flutter waves every 0.20 s (300 per minute), 3 for each QRS.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Interpretation

atrial flutter, 3:1 conduction

Answer

atrial flutter, 3:1 conduction
12.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: paced rhythm, failure to capture

Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.

Five steps

1. Rate: 6 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 60 per minute.
2. Rhythm: the pacing spikes are regular (every 0.92 s), but the R–R is not, because a QRS is missing after some spikes.
3. P waves: none visible.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.14 s and wide after the captured spikes; one spike is not followed by a QRS (no capture).

Interpretation

paced rhythm, failure to capture

Answer

paced rhythm, failure to capture

Failure to capture: the pacemaker fires but the heart does not respond. Textbooks treat it as urgent to report, because the patient may depend on the pacemaker.

13.Evidence-based practice statistics

Answer: NNT = 14

Likelihood ratios and risk measures: LR+ = sensitivity/(1 − specificity), LR− = (1 − sensitivity)/specificity. In a trial, EER and CER are the event rates with and without treatment: RR = EER/CER, ARR = CER − EER, RRR = ARR/CER and NNT = 1/ARR, rounded up. In a case-control study only the odds ratio OR = ad/(bc) can be used. An incidence rate = new cases/person-time.

Event rates

EER = 175/1000 = 0.175
CER = 110/440 = 0.25

Number needed to treat

ARR = 0.25 − 0.175 = 0.075
NNT = 1/0.075 = 13.33 → 14

Answer

NNT = 14

Treating 14 patients prevents about one event.

14.Evidence-based practice statistics

Answer: n₊ = 2286

Predictive values depend on prevalence: PPV = Se·p/(Se·p + (1 − Sp)(1 − p)) and NPV = Sp(1 − p)/(Sp(1 − p) + (1 − Se)p). With likelihood ratios: pre-test odds = p/(1 − p), post-test odds = pre-test odds × LR, probability = odds/(1 + odds). For a population of N, true positives = N·p·Se and false positives = N·(1 − p)·(1 − Sp). NNT = 1/(CER × RRR), rounded up.

With and without the disease

10 000·0.18 = 1800
10 000 − 1800 = 8200

All positive results

TP = 1800·0.86 = 1548
FP = 8200·0.09 = 738
n₊ = 1548 + 738 = 2286

Answer

n₊ = 2286

Of the 2286 positives only 1548 have the disease (PPV 67.7%).

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