Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

Why is a beta-blocker started at a low dose and increased slowly in heart failure?

  1. AIt can briefly worsen symptoms before long-term benefit appears
  2. BIt works only if the dose is never changed after the first day
  3. CIt must be stopped as soon as symptoms improve
  4. DIt is safe only at the highest possible dose from the very start
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient with heart failure on a 1.5 L/day fluid restriction complains of severe thirst. Which measure is most appropriate?

  1. ANo fluids at all until the next morning's weight
  2. BMouth care, counted ice chips and fluids spread through the day
  3. CUnlimited water, because thirst must always be satisfied
  4. DSalty snacks to stimulate saliva and relieve dryness
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

Which statement about the PSA blood test is correct?

  1. AA normal result always rules out any prostate cancer
  2. BIt can be raised by benign problems as well as by cancer
  3. CIt is only raised in women with bladder cancer
  4. DA raised result always means prostate cancer
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

A haemodialysis patient missed their last two sessions. They are breathless, with crackles, and the potassium is 6.9 mmol/L. What is the priority?

  1. ALarge IV fluid boluses to improve the circulation
  2. BA routine dialysis session at the next planned slot
  3. CUrgent dialysis, with cardiac monitoring meanwhile
  4. DOral potassium supplements and rest
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

Which task for a stable patient with an established ileostomy can usually be delegated to a trained healthcare assistant (nursing assistant)?

  1. AEmptying the pouch and measuring the output
  2. BTeaching the patient about high-output risks
  3. CDeciding whether IV fluids are needed
  4. DAssessing the stoma for signs of necrosis
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

During burn resuscitation, a 70 kg adult's urine output has been 120 mL/h for 3 hours, and the face and limbs are very oedematous. What should the nurse do?

  1. AIncrease the fluid rate to keep the output high
  2. BGive a diuretic without discussing it
  3. CStop all IV fluids completely and remove the catheter
  4. DDiscuss reducing the fluid rate with the team
7.Clinical nursingMedium

What is one advantage of a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban compared with warfarin?

  1. AIt has no risk of bleeding
  2. BIt is safe in all patients with severe kidney failure
  3. CIt never interacts with other drugs
  4. DIt does not need routine INR monitoring
8.Clinical nursingHard

A nurse is teaching a patient who is starting warfarin. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?

  1. A"I can take aspirin if I get a headache."
  2. B"I will report black stools or unusual bruising."
  3. C"I will keep my INR blood test appointments."
  4. D"I will tell my dentist that I take warfarin."
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

Why do patients with chronic kidney disease often have anemia?

  1. AHigh potassium in kidney disease breaks down red cells
  2. BThe kidneys make less erythropoietin, which drives red cell production
  3. CThe damaged kidneys filter out and destroy red blood cells
  4. DUremic toxins make the bone marrow produce white cells instead of red cells
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient on long-term amiodarone has fatigue and weight gain. TSH is 11 mIU/L and the free T4 is low. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. AAmiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism
  2. BA normal response to amiodarone needing no action
  3. CAmiodarone-induced hypothyroidism
  4. DSecondary hypothyroidism from pituitary failure
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

Practice values: Na⁺ 146 mmol/L, glucose 31.3 mmol/L and urea 19.3 mmol/L. Calculate the serum osmolality Osm = 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea to the nearest whole number.

Na⁺ 146 mmol/Lglucose 31.3 mmol/Lurea 19.3 mmol/L
Osm = mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
pH7.357.457.27PaCO₂mmHg354570HCO₃⁻mmol/L222631acutechronicacute on chronic

A practice gas shows a respiratory acidosis: pH 7.27, PaCO₂ 70 mmHg (9.3 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 31 mmol/L. Use the rules ‘HCO₃⁻ rises 1 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (acute) or 3.5 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (chronic)’ to classify it. Click your answer.

pH 7.27PaCO₂ 70 mmHg (9.3 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 31 mmol/L
  1. 1acute
  2. 2chronic
  3. 3acute on chronic
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVatrial flutter, 3:1 conductionatrial fibrillationatrial flutter, 4:1 conductionsinus tachycardia

Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1atrial flutter, 3:1 conduction
  2. 2atrial fibrillation
  3. 3atrial flutter, 4:1 conduction
  4. 4sinus tachycardia
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVraterhythmP wavesPR intervalQRS duration

Interpret this lead II strip with the five steps in order: rate, rhythm, P waves, PR interval, QRS duration. At which step do you find the first abnormal finding? Click it.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1rate
  2. 2rhythm
  3. 3P waves
  4. 4PR interval
  5. 5QRS duration
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A patient receiving chemotherapy has a temperature of 38.3 °C and a very low neutrophil count. What should the nurse do?

  1. AGive a cool shower and offer extra fluids, then wait and see what happens
  2. BRecheck the temperature in four hours before telling anyone
  3. CReport it at once, because cultures and antibiotics are needed quickly
  4. DDocument the reading and mention it at the next handover
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

A medical-unit nurse is floated to intensive care and given a patient on a ventilator, which the nurse has never managed. What is the best response?

  1. AAccept the full assignment without comment to avoid conflict
  2. BLeave the intensive care unit and go back to the medical unit without telling anyone
  3. CTell the charge nurse about the gap, accept tasks within competence and ask for support
  4. DRefuse to work and go home, because the assignment is unsafe

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · It can briefly worsen symptoms before long-term benefit appears

Why this is the answer

Beta-blockers improve survival in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but they can cause tiredness, low blood pressure, bradycardia and fluid retention when first started. They are therefore started low and increased gradually in stable patients, with monitoring of weight, pulse and BP.

Answer

A · It can briefly worsen symptoms before long-term benefit appears
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: B · Mouth care, counted ice chips and fluids spread through the day

Why this is the answer

Spreading fluids through the day, using small cups, sucking ice chips (counted in the total), sugar-free gum and regular mouth care help patients tolerate fluid restriction. Salty foods increase thirst and fluid retention.

Answer

B · Mouth care, counted ice chips and fluids spread through the day
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: B · It can be raised by benign problems as well as by cancer

Why this is the answer

PSA can rise with BPH, prostatitis, UTI, recent ejaculation or instrumentation, as well as cancer. A normal level does not exclude cancer. Results are interpreted with symptoms, examination and other tests.

Answer

B · It can be raised by benign problems as well as by cancer
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · Urgent dialysis, with cardiac monitoring meanwhile

Why this is the answer

Missing dialysis causes fluid overload and hyperkalaemia, both of which can be fatal. The patient needs cardiac monitoring, emergency treatment of the potassium and urgent dialysis to remove fluid and potassium.

Answer

C · Urgent dialysis, with cardiac monitoring meanwhile
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: A · Emptying the pouch and measuring the output

Why this is the answer

Emptying and measuring output is a routine task. Assessment of the stoma, teaching and decisions about treatment remain with the registered nurse, who reviews the recorded output.

Answer

A · Emptying the pouch and measuring the output
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · Discuss reducing the fluid rate with the team

Why this is the answer

An output of about 1.7 mL/kg/h suggests over-resuscitation. Excess fluid ("fluid creep") worsens oedema and can cause pulmonary oedema and compartment syndromes, so the rate is reviewed and reduced under the burn protocol.

Answer

D · Discuss reducing the fluid rate with the team
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: D · It does not need routine INR monitoring

Why this is the answer

DOACs have predictable effects so INR monitoring is not needed. They still cause bleeding, have some interactions and need kidney function checked.

Answer

D · It does not need routine INR monitoring
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · "I can take aspirin if I get a headache."

Why this is the answer

Aspirin and other NSAIDs increase the bleeding risk with warfarin, so patients should ask before taking any new medicine. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is usually the safer choice for simple pain.

Answer

A · "I can take aspirin if I get a headache."
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: B · The kidneys make less erythropoietin, which drives red cell production

Why this is the answer

Diseased kidneys produce less erythropoietin, so the marrow makes fewer red cells. Treatment can include erythropoiesis-stimulating agents and iron.Checked against: Anemia · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026); Erythropoietin test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025)

Answer

B · The kidneys make less erythropoietin, which drives red cell production
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism

Why this is the answer

Amiodarone is rich in iodine and can cause either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. A high TSH with a low free T4 shows primary hypothyroidism, so thyroid function is monitored before and during therapy; liver tests are monitored too.Checked against: Hypothyroidism · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024)

Answer

C · Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: Osm = 343 mOsm/kg

Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.

Calculated osmolality

Osm = 2·146 + 31.3 + 19.3 = 342.6 ≈ 343 mOsm/kg

Answer

Osm = 343 mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: acute on chronic

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Expected HCO₃⁻

acute: 24 + 1·3 = 27 mmol/L
chronic: 24 + 3.5·3 = 34.5 mmol/L

Compare

measured: 31 mmol/L → acute on chronic

Answer

acute on chronic
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: atrial flutter, 4:1 conduction

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 20 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 20 ≈ 75 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.80 s.
3. P waves: none; regular sawtooth flutter waves every 0.20 s (300 per minute), 4 for each QRS.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Interpretation

atrial flutter, 4:1 conduction

Answer

atrial flutter, 4:1 conduction
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: rhythm

Five steps for every strip: 1. rate (300 or 1500 method, or the 6-second method if irregular); 2. rhythm: are the R–R intervals equal; 3. P waves: present, upright in lead II, one before every QRS and all alike; 4. PR interval: 0.12–0.20 s and constant; 5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s. Only after the five steps name the rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm passes all five: 60–100/min, regular, upright P before every QRS, PR 0.12–0.20 s, QRS below 0.12 s.

Five steps

1. Rate: 8 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 80 per minute.
2. Rhythm: irregularly irregular, R–R from 0.64 to 0.94 s with no pattern.
3. P waves: none; the baseline shows small irregular fibrillatory waves.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

First abnormal step

rhythm → atrial fibrillation

Answer

rhythm
15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: C · Report it at once, because cultures and antibiotics are needed quickly

Why this is the answer

Neutropenic fever is a medical emergency. The patient may have few other signs of infection, so the nurse reports it immediately so that cultures can be taken and IV antibiotics started.

Answer

C · Report it at once, because cultures and antibiotics are needed quickly
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: C · Tell the charge nurse about the gap, accept tasks within competence and ask for support

Why this is the answer

A nurse should clearly state the limits of their competence and ask for an assignment or support that keeps patients safe. Leaving without handover would be patient abandonment.

Answer

C · Tell the charge nurse about the gap, accept tasks within competence and ask for support

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/medical-surgical-nursing