Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

How do clopidogrel and ticagrelor work?

  1. AThey dissolve fibrin in existing clots
  2. BThey directly inhibit thrombin in the plasma
  3. CThey inhibit the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver
  4. DThey block the platelet ADP (P2Y12) receptor
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

The monitor of a patient with a permanent pacemaker shows pacing spikes, but none of them is followed by a QRS complex. What does this mean?

  1. AFailure to sense
  2. BAtrial fibrillation
  3. CFailure to capture
  4. DNormal pacemaker function
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

How is cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) calculated?

  1. ADiastolic pressure minus central venous pressure
  2. BSystolic arterial pressure plus intracranial pressure
  3. CMean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure
  4. DMean arterial pressure divided by heart rate
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

Which patient with a spinal cord injury is at risk of autonomic dysreflexia?

  1. AA patient with an injury at T4
  2. BA patient with an injury at L5
  3. CA patient with an injury at S2
  4. DA patient with an injury at L3
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

Which advice helps prevent dumping syndrome after gastrectomy?

  1. AA high-sugar diet with fruit juice to keep energy levels up
  2. BSit upright and walk briskly straight after every meal
  3. CThree large meals a day with plenty of sweet drinks with each meal
  4. DSmall, frequent meals low in simple sugars, with fluids between meals
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

A patient asks whether to take their usual bisoprolol on the morning of surgery. What is the usual guidance?

  1. AUsually continue it with a sip of water, unless told otherwise
  2. BTake it only after the operation is finished
  3. CTake a double dose to protect the heart
  4. DStop it one week before any operation
7.Clinical nursingMedium

Which side effect is associated with SGLT2 inhibitors such as dapagliflozin?

  1. AHair loss
  2. BSevere weight gain and fluid retention
  3. CGenital fungal infections
  4. DBradycardia
8.Clinical nursingHard

A dying patient has noisy, rattling breathing caused by secretions in the throat and is unconscious. Which approach is appropriate?

  1. ABegin rapid intravenous fluids to thin and clear the secretions
  2. BStart deep oropharyngeal suctioning every 10 minutes through the night
  3. CReposition, consider prescribed antisecretory drugs and support the family
  4. DTell the family that the patient is suffocating and needs ventilation
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A patient with sickle cell disease takes hydroxyurea. Which laboratory test is monitored regularly for an adverse effect?

  1. ASerum amylase level
  2. BComplete blood count
  3. CSerum lithium level
  4. DUrine ketone level
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient receiving parenteral nutrition with lipid emulsion has a triglyceride level of 620 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L). Why is this result important?

  1. AIt means the patient needs more lipid
  2. BIt raises the risk of acute pancreatitis
  3. CIt is a normal fasting value for adults
  4. DIt shows the nutrition is fully effective
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

Practice values: Na⁺ 140 mmol/L, glucose 10.4 mmol/L and urea 5 mmol/L. Calculate the serum osmolality Osm = 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea to the nearest whole number.

Na⁺ 140 mmol/Lglucose 10.4 mmol/Lurea 5 mmol/L
Osm = mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard

Practice values: Na⁺ 135, Cl⁻ 111, HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L and albumin 19 g/L. Find the albumin-corrected anion gap AGc = AG + 0.25·(40 − albumin).

Na⁺ 135 mmol/LCl⁻ 111 mmol/LHCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/Lalbumin 19 g/L
AGc = mmol/L
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

This lead II strip shows sinus rhythm with one pause. Measure the pause, the R–R interval across it, in seconds.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
pause = s
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVtorsades de pointesventricular fibrillationatrial flutter, 4:1 conductionasystole

Identify the rhythm on this lead II strip. Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1torsades de pointes
  2. 2ventricular fibrillation
  3. 3atrial flutter, 4:1 conduction
  4. 4asystole
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

One hour after a vaginal birth, the nurse finds a soft, boggy uterus and heavy bleeding. What is the first action?

  1. AOffer a meal and fluids
  2. BMassage the fundus
  3. CEncourage the patient to rest quietly
  4. DApply an ice pack to the perineum
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

After the RN taught a patient to inject insulin, an LPN/LVN reports that the patient still cannot draw up the dose correctly. What should happen next?

  1. AThe LPN/LVN writes a new teaching plan and evaluates it at the end of the shift
  2. BThe RN reassesses the patient’s learning needs and adjusts the teaching
  3. CThe patient is discharged with a leaflet to read at home
  4. DThe nursing assistant shows the patient again at lunch

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: D · They block the platelet ADP (P2Y12) receptor

Why this is the answer

Clopidogrel, prasugrel and ticagrelor block the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets, reducing aggregation. With aspirin, they form dual antiplatelet therapy after acute coronary syndromes and stents. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent factors; dabigatran inhibits thrombin.

Answer

D · They block the platelet ADP (P2Y12) receptor
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: C · Failure to capture

Why this is the answer

Failure to capture means the pacing stimulus does not depolarise the myocardium, so no QRS follows the spike. Causes include lead displacement, a raised threshold or battery problems. It can cause bradycardia or asystole, so the patient is assessed and the team informed urgently.

Answer

C · Failure to capture
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · Mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure

Why this is the answer

CPP = MAP − ICP. A CPP of at least about 60 mmHg is usually targeted in adults with brain injury. If ICP rises or MAP falls, CPP falls and the brain becomes ischaemic.

Answer

C · Mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: A · A patient with an injury at T4

Why this is the answer

Autonomic dysreflexia usually occurs with injuries at T6 or above. Below this level, the body can still control the sympathetic response to stimuli such as a full bladder. Lumbar and sacral injuries do not usually cause it.

Answer

A · A patient with an injury at T4
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · Small, frequent meals low in simple sugars, with fluids between meals

Why this is the answer

Small meals, fewer simple sugars, more protein and fibre, and taking fluids between rather than with meals slow emptying and reduce fluid shifts. Lying down briefly after meals can also help.

Answer

D · Small, frequent meals low in simple sugars, with fluids between meals
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: A · Usually continue it with a sip of water, unless told otherwise

Why this is the answer

Beta-blockers are usually continued around surgery because sudden withdrawal can cause rebound tachycardia and ischaemia. The patient follows the specific instructions from the preoperative assessment.

Answer

A · Usually continue it with a sip of water, unless told otherwise
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: C · Genital fungal infections

Why this is the answer

SGLT2 inhibitors cause glycosuria, which increases the risk of genital thrush and urinary infections. They can also rarely cause DKA with only modestly raised glucose.

Answer

C · Genital fungal infections
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: C · Reposition, consider prescribed antisecretory drugs and support the family

Why this is the answer

The "death rattle" is managed by repositioning, mouth care and sometimes drugs that reduce secretions. Explaining it to relatives eases their distress.

Answer

C · Reposition, consider prescribed antisecretory drugs and support the family
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: B · Complete blood count

Why this is the answer

Hydroxyurea increases fetal hemoglobin and reduces sickling crises, but it can suppress the bone marrow. The CBC, including neutrophils and platelets, is monitored regularly, and doses are adjusted if counts fall.Checked against: Sickle cell disease · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026)

Answer

B · Complete blood count
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: B · It raises the risk of acute pancreatitis

Why this is the answer

Triglycerides are monitored in patients receiving lipid emulsions, because high levels can cause pancreatitis and show that lipid is not being cleared. The result is reported, and the lipid dose may be reduced or held.Checked against: Triglycerides Test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2024)

Answer

B · It raises the risk of acute pancreatitis
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: Osm = 295 mOsm/kg

Derived values: calculated serum osmolality is 2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea with all values in mmol/L (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 with glucose and BUN in mg/dL); normal is about 275–295 mOsm/kg. The P/F ratio is PaO₂ divided by FiO₂ as a fraction. The alveolar oxygen pressure is PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8 mmHg at sea level, and the A–a gradient is PAO₂ − PaO₂.

Calculated osmolality

Osm = 2·140 + 10.4 + 5 = 295.4 ≈ 295 mOsm/kg

Answer

Osm = 295 mOsm/kg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: AGc = 15.25 mmol/L

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Anion gap

AG = 135 − (111 + 14) = 10

Correction for albumin

10 + 0.25·(40 − 19) = 15.25 mmol/L

Answer

AGc = 15.25 mmol/L

Above about 12 after correction: a high anion gap.

13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: pause = 2 s

Narrow-complex tachycardia and pauses: supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a regular tachycardia at about 150–250/min with narrow QRS complexes; the P waves are usually not visible because they are hidden in the QRS complex or the T wave. Sinus tachycardia in an adult at rest is usually below about 150/min and has a visible P wave before every QRS; atrial flutter with 2:1 conduction often runs at about 150/min and shows sawtooth waves. In sinus arrest the sinus node stops firing for a moment: a pause with no P wave and no QRS whose length is not a whole number of P–P cycles (a pause of exactly two or three cycles points to sinus exit block instead).

Measure

50 small boxes from R to R across the pause

Convert

pause = 50 × 0.04 s = 2 s

Compare with P–P

2.00 ÷ 0.84 ≈ 2.4 P–P cycles, not a whole number

Answer

pause = 2 s

No P wave appears in the pause, and the pause is not a whole number of P–P cycles: sinus arrest. A pause of exactly two or three cycles would point to sinus exit block.

14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular rhythms: ventricular tachycardia is a run of three or more wide (0.12 s or more) complexes in a row at more than 100/min, usually 150–250/min, regular, without related P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is a chaotic, irregular waveform with no identifiable P waves, QRS complexes or T waves and no countable rate. Asystole is an almost flat line with no ventricular activity; a flat line is always confirmed by checking the patient, the leads and the gain and a second lead. In resuscitation guidelines VF and pulseless VT are the shockable rhythms and asystole is not.

Five steps

1. Rate: no countable ventricular rate.
2. Rhythm: chaotic, no repeating pattern.
3. P waves: none identifiable.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: no QRS complexes.

Interpretation

ventricular fibrillation

Answer

ventricular fibrillation

In resuscitation guidelines VF and pulseless VT are the shockable rhythms. This is identification practice only.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · Massage the fundus

Why this is the answer

Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract; the nurse then calls for help and gives prescribed uterotonics if bleeding continues.

Answer

B · Massage the fundus
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · The RN reassesses the patient’s learning needs and adjusts the teaching

Why this is the answer

Evaluating learning and changing the teaching plan belong to the RN. The LPN/LVN can reinforce teaching, but a teaching plan that is not working needs RN reassessment.

Answer

B · The RN reassesses the patient’s learning needs and adjusts the teaching

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