Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

Which investigation is most often used to confirm a pulmonary embolism?

  1. ACT pulmonary angiography
  2. BSputum culture
  3. CPeak flow measurement
  4. DAbdominal ultrasound
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

Four hours after abdominal surgery, a patient's heart rate has risen from 84 to 122/min and they are restless and pale. BP is still 118/76 mmHg, and the surgical drain is filling with blood. What should the nurse conclude?

  1. AThe drain is working well, so no action is needed
  2. BEarly haemorrhagic shock is likely, so escalate urgently
  3. CThe patient is stable because the blood pressure is normal
  4. DThe tachycardia is from pain and needs only analgesia
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

A routine blood test shows a potassium of 6.4 mmol/L. The lab reports that the sample was haemolysed. The patient feels well. What should the nurse do?

  1. AIgnore it, because haemolysis always gives a normal result
  2. BStart dialysis as soon as possible
  3. CGive oral potassium supplements straight away
  4. DInform the doctor and arrange an urgent repeat sample
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

The nurse has four urology patients. Which one needs to be seen first?

  1. AA patient with a suprapubic catheter due for a routine change
  2. BA patient after TURP with light pink drainage and mild discomfort
  3. CA patient with a nephrostomy who has rigors and a BP of 86/50 mmHg
  4. DA patient with stress incontinence asking about pelvic floor exercises
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

How should a patient with facial burns usually be positioned?

  1. AIn any position that keeps the face covered
  2. BLying face down on the pillow to protect the airway
  3. CLying flat with the head lower than the feet
  4. DWith the head of the bed raised to reduce swelling
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

A few hours after thyroid surgery, a patient's neck swells rapidly and they become short of breath with stridor. What is most likely?

  1. AAn allergy to the wound dressing
  2. BLow blood calcium from the surgery
  3. CA haematoma pressing on the airway
  4. DNormal swelling after neck surgery
7.Clinical nursingMedium

When giving insulin, which statement is correct?

  1. AAlways inject into the same spot for consistent absorption
  2. BRotate injection sites to avoid lipohypertrophy
  3. CRapid-acting insulin is given only at bedtime
  4. DInsulin should be shaken hard before use
8.Clinical nursingHard

Why must a unit of red cells be transfused within the set time limit (commonly four hours) after it leaves controlled cold storage?

  1. AThe bag stops dripping after four hours
  2. BBacteria can grow in the blood at room temperature
  3. CThe red cells break down and turn into plasma
  4. DThe blood group of the cells changes after a few hours
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A patient is starting dabigatran, a direct oral anticoagulant. Which laboratory test is most important to review before the first dose?

  1. AKidney function (creatinine clearance)
  2. BTSH, to rule out an overactive thyroid gland
  3. CINR, to set the dose of the anticoagulant
  4. DLipase, to rule out an inflamed pancreas first
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient admitted with heavy alcohol use and malnutrition has a glucose of 52 mg/dL (2.9 mmol/L) and low magnesium. Which prescribed treatment should be given before the IV glucose?

  1. AIV potassium
  2. BOral iron
  3. CIV insulin
  4. DIV thiamine
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
pH7.357.457.37PaCO₂mmHg354550HCO₃⁻mmol/L222628uncompensatedpartially compensatedfully compensated

A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.37, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg (6.7 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L. The primary disorder is respiratory acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.

pH 7.37PaCO₂ 50 mmHg (6.7 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L
  1. 1uncompensated
  2. 2partially compensated
  3. 3fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard

Practice values: Na⁺ 132, Cl⁻ 90 and HCO₃⁻ 9 mmol/L. Calculate the delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻), using AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻). Give two decimals.

Na⁺ 132 mmol/LCl⁻ 90 mmol/LHCO₃⁻ 9 mmol/L
delta ratio =
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

This lead II strip shows atrial flutter with a fixed conduction ratio. Find the ventricular rate in beats per minute.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
ventricular rate = bpm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVfirst-degree AV blocksecond-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)third-degree (complete) AV blocksecond-degree AV block type II

This lead II strip shows a conduction problem between the atria and the ventricles. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1first-degree AV block
  2. 2second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
  3. 3third-degree (complete) AV block
  4. 4second-degree AV block type II
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A patient has a serum potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which action comes first?

  1. APlace the patient on a cardiac monitor
  2. BRecheck the level next week
  3. CEncourage foods high in potassium
  4. DGive the patient’s scheduled potassium supplement
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

A patient with COPD on 2 L/min oxygen becomes drowsy and hard to wake. The SpO₂ is 93%. What is the priority?

  1. AGive the as-needed sedative so the patient rests comfortably
  2. BAssess breathing and escalate for a blood gas, as carbon dioxide may be rising
  3. CIncrease the oxygen to 6 L/min so that the saturation goes even higher than now
  4. DLet the patient sleep, because the saturation is above target

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · CT pulmonary angiography

Why this is the answer

CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) shows filling defects in the pulmonary arteries. It uses iodinated contrast, so renal function and contrast allergy are checked. A ventilation–perfusion (V/Q) scan is an alternative, for example in pregnancy or renal impairment.

Answer

A · CT pulmonary angiography
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: B · Early haemorrhagic shock is likely, so escalate urgently

Why this is the answer

Rising heart rate, restlessness, pallor and visible bleeding are signs of compensated haemorrhagic shock. Waiting for hypotension delays treatment. The nurse escalates urgently, gives oxygen, ensures IV access and anticipates bloods, fluids or blood products and surgical review.

Answer

B · Early haemorrhagic shock is likely, so escalate urgently
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · Inform the doctor and arrange an urgent repeat sample

Why this is the answer

Haemolysis releases potassium from red cells and can falsely raise the result. A repeat sample is taken urgently, and an ECG may be done. If the ECG shows hyperkalaemic changes, treatment should not wait.

Answer

D · Inform the doctor and arrange an urgent repeat sample
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · A patient with a nephrostomy who has rigors and a BP of 86/50 mmHg

Why this is the answer

Rigors and hypotension in a patient with a nephrostomy suggest urosepsis, which needs immediate assessment and treatment. Light pink drainage after TURP is expected. The other patients are stable.

Answer

C · A patient with a nephrostomy who has rigors and a BP of 86/50 mmHg
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · With the head of the bed raised to reduce swelling

Why this is the answer

Raising the head reduces facial and airway swelling. The airway is monitored closely because swelling can increase over the first 24–48 hours.

Answer

D · With the head of the bed raised to reduce swelling
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: C · A haematoma pressing on the airway

Why this is the answer

A haematoma after thyroid or neck surgery can compress the airway quickly. It is an emergency: call for help, sit the patient up and give oxygen, and follow local guidance on opening the wound to release the clot.

Answer

C · A haematoma pressing on the airway
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: B · Rotate injection sites to avoid lipohypertrophy

Why this is the answer

Rotating sites prevents fatty lumps that make absorption unpredictable. Cloudy insulins are mixed by gentle rolling, not shaking.

Answer

B · Rotate injection sites to avoid lipohypertrophy
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: B · Bacteria can grow in the blood at room temperature

Why this is the answer

Red cells are stored cold to limit bacterial growth. Once out of controlled storage, the transfusion must be completed within the time limit to reduce the risk of bacterial contamination and transfusion-transmitted infection.

Answer

B · Bacteria can grow in the blood at room temperature
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: A · Kidney function (creatinine clearance)

Why this is the answer

Dabigatran is excreted mainly by the kidneys, so poor kidney function raises the drug level and bleeding risk. Kidney function is checked before starting and regularly afterwards. Routine INR monitoring is not used for direct oral anticoagulants.Checked against: Dabigatran · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025)

Answer

A · Kidney function (creatinine clearance)
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: D · IV thiamine

Why this is the answer

People with alcohol use disorder and malnutrition are often deficient in thiamine. Giving glucose first can use up the remaining thiamine and precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy, so thiamine is usually given before or with glucose. Hypoglycemia must still be treated promptly.

Answer

D · IV thiamine
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: fully compensated

Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.

ROME, value by value

pH 7.37: within 7.35–7.45
PaCO₂ 50 mmHg: high (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 28 mmol/L: high (22–26)

Compensation

fully compensated

Answer

fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: delta ratio = 1.4

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Anion gap

AG = 132 − (90 + 9) = 33

Delta ratio

(33 − 12)/(24 − 9) = 21/15 = 1.4

Answer

delta ratio = 1.4

Between 1 and 2: a pure high anion gap acidosis.

13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: ventricular rate = 63 bpm

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Flutter waves

F–F = 6 small boxes = 0.24 s → 1500 ÷ 6 = 250 per minute

QRS complexes

R–R = 24 small boxes = 0.96 s → 1500 ÷ 24 = 63 per minute
conduction ratio = 250 ÷ 63 = 4:1

Answer

ventricular rate = 63 bpm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: second-degree AV block type II

AV blocks: march out the P waves and check which ones are followed by a QRS. First-degree: every P conducted, PR constant and above 0.20 s. Second-degree type I (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): the PR lengthens from beat to beat until one P wave is not conducted, then the cycle starts again (group beating). Second-degree type II (Mobitz II): the PR of the conducted beats stays constant, and P waves are suddenly not conducted; the QRS is often wide. Third-degree (complete) block: P waves and QRS complexes are each regular but independent, the PR varies at random and the atrial rate is faster than the escape rate (junctional 40–60/min with a narrow QRS, ventricular 20–40/min with a wide QRS). A 2:1 block cannot be called type I or type II from one strip.

Five steps

1. Rate: 4 QRS complexes in 6 s, × 10 = 40 per minute.
2. Rhythm: the P waves are regular; R–R is regular except for a long pause where a QRS is missing.
3. P waves: upright and regular (P–P 0.92 s, 65 per minute); one P in every 3 is not followed by a QRS.
4. PR interval: constant at 0.16 s in the conducted beats.
5. QRS: 0.08 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Interpretation

second-degree AV block type II

Answer

second-degree AV block type II

Type II and third-degree blocks are the ones that can suddenly progress, so textbooks rank them as more serious than type I.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: A · Place the patient on a cardiac monitor

Why this is the answer

Severe hyperkalemia can cause dangerous arrhythmias, so continuous cardiac monitoring comes first while the provider is informed and treatment is prepared.

Answer

A · Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · Assess breathing and escalate for a blood gas, as carbon dioxide may be rising

Why this is the answer

In COPD, drowsiness can be a sign of carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia), even when the saturation is acceptable. The nurse assesses breathing, escalates and avoids extra oxygen or sedatives that could worsen it.

Answer

B · Assess breathing and escalate for a blood gas, as carbon dioxide may be rising

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/medical-surgical-nursing