Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

A patient with peripheral arterial disease has leg pain at night. Which position may ease it?

  1. AWrapping the legs in compression bandages
  2. BRaising the legs on pillows above heart level
  3. CHanging the legs down over the side of the bed
  4. DApplying a hot water bottle directly to the feet
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient taking ramipril and indapamide for hypertension starts regular ibuprofen for back pain. A week later, creatinine has risen sharply. What is the most likely cause?

  1. AIbuprofen raising the blood pressure to levels that damage the kidneys
  2. BAn ACE inhibitor, diuretic and NSAID together reducing kidney perfusion
  3. CBack pain causing kidney damage
  4. DAn allergic reaction to the diuretic causing inflammation of the kidney
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

A kidney transplant recipient asks about travel vaccines. Which statement is correct?

  1. AVaccines will cause the kidney to be rejected
  2. BOnly live vaccines are effective after a transplant
  3. CAll vaccines are completely safe after a transplant
  4. DLive vaccines are usually avoided
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

A patient with suspected meningitis has a GCS of 9 and pupils that have become unequal. A doctor plans an immediate lumbar puncture. What is the main concern?

  1. ARaised pressure in the skull, so the procedure could cause herniation
  2. BA lumbar puncture would spread the infection to the blood
  3. CThe patient is too confused to stay still, so it is not needed
  4. DThere is no concern, because the lumbar puncture lowers pressure safely
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

A patient with an acute upper GI bleed has a normal haemoglobin on arrival. Why can this be misleading?

  1. AHaemoglobin always rises at first after any blood loss
  2. BHaemoglobin only falls after a whole week of continuous bleeding
  3. CHaemoglobin is not affected by bleeding from the gut
  4. DIt falls only after fluid shifts or IV fluids dilute the blood
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

A patient with a PICC line develops swelling and aching of the same arm and prominent veins on the chest. What should the nurse suspect?

  1. ALymphoedema from a previous operation
  2. BA catheter-related deep vein thrombosis
  3. CAn allergy to the dressing
  4. DNormal swelling after line insertion
7.Clinical nursingMedium

A patient with type 1 diabetes has blood glucose of 25 mmol/L, deep rapid breathing and ketones in the urine. What is the likely diagnosis?

  1. AHyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state without ketones
  2. BDiabetic ketoacidosis
  3. CHypoglycaemia
  4. DNormal glucose fluctuation
8.Clinical nursingHard

A patient has a painful, punched-out ulcer on the toes, with a cold, pale foot and weak foot pulses. Which type of ulcer is most likely?

  1. AA pressure ulcer from bed rest
  2. BAn arterial ulcer
  3. CA burn
  4. DA venous ulcer
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A patient who is breathless during a transfusion has hypotension, fever and bilateral lung infiltrates, with no signs of fluid overload. Which complication is most likely?

  1. ATransfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
  2. BTransfusion-associated circulatory overload
  3. CA simple allergic reaction with hives
  4. DA mild febrile nonhemolytic reaction
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient with a large, fast-growing lymphoma will start chemotherapy tomorrow. Which plan best prevents tumor lysis syndrome?

  1. ACalcium supplements and a high-phosphate diet during treatment
  2. BFluid restriction and a high-potassium diet before the treatment
  3. CNo special measures, because the risk starts only after a week
  4. DIV hydration, a uric acid-lowering drug and frequent electrolytes
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
pH7.357.457.19PaCO₂mmHg354519HCO₃⁻mmol/L22267uncompensatedpartially compensatedfully compensated

A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.19, PaCO₂ 19 mmHg (2.5 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L. The primary disorder is metabolic acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.

pH 7.19PaCO₂ 19 mmHg (2.5 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L
  1. 1uncompensated
  2. 2partially compensated
  3. 3fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
pH7.357.457.32PaCO₂mmHg354534HCO₃⁻mmol/L222617added normal-gap acidosispure high-gap acidosisadded metabolic alkalosis

A practice gas shows pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 34 mmHg (4.5 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 17 mmol/L, with Na⁺ 138 and Cl⁻ 89 mmol/L. Use the anion gap and the delta ratio to click the best interpretation.

pH 7.32PaCO₂ 34 mmHg (4.5 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 17 mmol/LNa⁺ 138 mmol/LCl⁻ 89 mmol/L
  1. 1added normal-gap acidosis
  2. 2pure high-gap acidosis
  3. 3added metabolic alkalosis
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVventricular tachycardiaatrial fibrillationsupraventricular tachycardia (SVT)accelerated junctional rhythm

Interpret this lead II rhythm strip. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1ventricular tachycardia
  2. 2atrial fibrillation
  3. 3supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
  4. 4accelerated junctional rhythm
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVthird-degree (complete) AV blocksecond-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)sinus bradycardia2:1 AV block (type undetermined)

Interpret this lead II strip. Which interpretation can you defend from this single strip? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1third-degree (complete) AV block
  2. 2second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
  3. 3sinus bradycardia
  4. 42:1 AV block (type undetermined)
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A pregnant nurse is on the unit. Which patient should the charge nurse avoid assigning to her?

  1. AA patient after a hip replacement
  2. BA patient with a sealed radioactive implant for cervical cancer
  3. CA patient with a fractured wrist
  4. DA patient with type 2 diabetes who needs insulin teaching before discharge
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

Two weeks after birth, a mother says she hears voices telling her the baby is evil. What is the priority?

  1. ALeave her alone with the baby to bond
  2. BReassure her that this is normal “baby blues”
  3. CAdvise more sleep and book a routine follow-up visit for next month
  4. DKeep the mother and baby safe and arrange urgent psychiatric care

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: C · Hanging the legs down over the side of the bed

Why this is the answer

Ischaemic rest pain is often relieved by lowering the legs, which improves arterial flow by gravity. Elevation worsens ischaemia. Compression is contraindicated in significant arterial disease, and direct heat can burn insensitive, ischaemic skin.

Answer

C · Hanging the legs down over the side of the bed
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: B · An ACE inhibitor, diuretic and NSAID together reducing kidney perfusion

Why this is the answer

NSAIDs constrict the afferent arteriole, ACE inhibitors dilate the efferent arteriole and diuretics reduce volume. Together (sometimes called the "triple whammy") they can cause acute kidney injury. The NSAID is stopped, and the prescriber reviews the other drugs.

Answer

B · An ACE inhibitor, diuretic and NSAID together reducing kidney perfusion
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · Live vaccines are usually avoided

Why this is the answer

Live vaccines, such as yellow fever, can cause infection in immunosuppressed patients and are usually avoided. Inactivated vaccines, such as influenza, are recommended, although the response may be weaker.

Answer

D · Live vaccines are usually avoided
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: A · Raised pressure in the skull, so the procedure could cause herniation

Why this is the answer

Reduced consciousness and unequal pupils suggest raised ICP. A lumbar puncture in this situation may cause brain herniation, so imaging comes first, and antibiotics are not delayed. The nurse should raise this concern.

Answer

A · Raised pressure in the skull, so the procedure could cause herniation
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: D · It falls only after fluid shifts or IV fluids dilute the blood

Why this is the answer

In acute haemorrhage, red cells and plasma are lost together, so the concentration is initially unchanged. It falls as fluid moves from the tissues into the circulation and IV fluids are given. Vital signs and clinical signs are more reliable early indicators.

Answer

D · It falls only after fluid shifts or IV fluids dilute the blood
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: B · A catheter-related deep vein thrombosis

Why this is the answer

PICCs increase the risk of upper limb DVT. Arm swelling, pain and dilated superficial veins are reported for ultrasound assessment and possible anticoagulation; the line is not used until reviewed.

Answer

B · A catheter-related deep vein thrombosis
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: B · Diabetic ketoacidosis

Why this is the answer

High glucose, ketones and acidosis with Kussmaul breathing indicate DKA. It is treated with fluids, insulin and close potassium monitoring.

Answer

B · Diabetic ketoacidosis
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: B · An arterial ulcer

Why this is the answer

Arterial ulcers are usually on the feet or toes, painful and punched-out, with signs of poor perfusion. Venous ulcers are usually around the ankle, shallow and associated with swelling and skin staining.

Answer

B · An arterial ulcer
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: A · Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Why this is the answer

TRALI is acute lung injury within 6 hours of transfusion, caused by donor antibodies activating neutrophils in the lungs. It causes hypoxia, bilateral infiltrates and often hypotension and fever. TACO, in contrast, causes hypertension and signs of fluid overload.

Answer

A · Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: D · IV hydration, a uric acid-lowering drug and frequent electrolytes

Why this is the answer

Prevention includes aggressive IV hydration, drugs such as allopurinol or rasburicase to lower uric acid, and frequent monitoring of potassium, phosphate, calcium, uric acid and creatinine. Tumor lysis usually begins within 1–3 days of starting treatment.Checked against: Uric Acid Test · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2026)

Answer

D · IV hydration, a uric acid-lowering drug and frequent electrolytes
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: partially compensated

Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.

ROME, value by value

pH 7.19: acidaemia (below 7.35)
PaCO₂ 19 mmHg: low (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L: low (22–26)

Compensation

partially compensated

Answer

partially compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: added metabolic alkalosis

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Anion gap

AG = 138 − (89 + 17) = 32

Delta ratio

(32 − 12)/(24 − 17) = 2.857
added metabolic alkalosis

Answer

added metabolic alkalosis
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC. Narrow-complex tachycardia and pauses: supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a regular tachycardia at about 150–250/min with narrow QRS complexes; the P waves are usually not visible because they are hidden in the QRS complex or the T wave. Sinus tachycardia in an adult at rest is usually below about 150/min and has a visible P wave before every QRS; atrial flutter with 2:1 conduction often runs at about 150/min and shows sawtooth waves. In sinus arrest the sinus node stops firing for a moment: a pause with no P wave and no QRS whose length is not a whole number of P–P cycles (a pause of exactly two or three cycles points to sinus exit block instead).

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 8 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 8 ≈ 188 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.32 s.
3. P waves: none visible; at this rate they are hidden in the QRS complexes or the T waves.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.06 s, narrow (below 0.12 s), so the rhythm starts above the ventricles.

Interpretation

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

Answer

supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: 2:1 AV block (type undetermined)

2:1 AV block: with two P waves for every QRS, no two conducted P waves follow each other, so you cannot see whether the PR would lengthen (type I) or stay constant (type II) before a non-conducted P wave. From one strip it is called a 2:1 AV block; a longer strip or a change in the conduction ratio decides the type. A narrow QRS makes type I more likely and a wide QRS type II, but neither proves it.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 38 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 38 ≈ 39 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 1.52 s.
3. P waves: upright and regular (P–P 0.76 s, 79 per minute), two for every QRS.
4. PR interval: constant at 0.18 s in the conducted beats.
5. QRS: 0.10 s, narrow (below 0.12 s).

Why the type stays open

Every second P wave is not conducted, so no two conducted beats follow each other and a lengthening PR could never show.
2:1 AV block (type undetermined)

Answer

2:1 AV block (type undetermined)

A narrow QRS makes type I more likely and a wide QRS type II, but only a longer strip or a change in the conduction ratio decides.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · A patient with a sealed radioactive implant for cervical cancer

Why this is the answer

A sealed radioactive implant (brachytherapy) emits radiation, and pregnant staff should not care for these patients. The other patients pose no special risk to a pregnancy.

Answer

B · A patient with a sealed radioactive implant for cervical cancer
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: D · Keep the mother and baby safe and arrange urgent psychiatric care

Why this is the answer

Hallucinations and delusions after birth suggest postpartum psychosis, a psychiatric emergency with risk to mother and baby. Safety and urgent specialist care are the priorities.

Answer

D · Keep the mother and baby safe and arrange urgent psychiatric care

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