Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

A patient has exercise-induced asthma. Which advice is most appropriate?

  1. AExercise only in cold, dry air to toughen the airways
  2. BUse the reliever inhaler shortly before exercise and warm up
  3. CTake a beta-blocker before exercise
  4. DAvoid all forms of exercise permanently to prevent attacks
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient declines enoxaparin for VTE prevention because it is made from pork, which conflicts with their beliefs. What is the best response?

  1. ARespect the decision, inform the prescriber and discuss non-animal options
  2. BTell the patient that refusal means they cannot have surgery
  3. CDocument the refusal in the notes and take no further action at all
  4. DGive the injection anyway without explaining what the medicine is made from
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

An 85-year-old care home resident becomes newly confused and is falling more often. A UTI is one possibility. Why?

  1. AOlder adults often show infection as confusion
  2. BConfusion is the only symptom of a UTI at any age
  3. CA UTI cannot occur in people over 80
  4. DUrinary infections always cause a high fever in older adults
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

A seizure has lasted 12 minutes. Two doses of benzodiazepine have been given, and the seizure continues. Airway and oxygen are managed. What is the next step in common protocols?

  1. AGiving oral antiseizure tablets once the patient can swallow
  2. BA second-line IV drug such as levetiracetam or phenytoin
  3. CA third and fourth dose of benzodiazepine every two minutes
  4. DWaiting another 30 minutes to see whether the seizure stops
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

What is anticipatory nausea in chemotherapy?

  1. ANausea caused only by the smell of food
  2. BNausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
  3. CNausea that starts about a week after each cycle and lasts for days
  4. DNausea caused by low blood glucose
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

A patient on an opioid PCA receives oxygen by mask. SpO₂ is 97% and the respiratory rate 11/min, but they are now hard to rouse. What should the nurse conclude?

  1. AThe patient is simply sleeping well, as the pain is controlled
  2. BOpioid toxicity is likely; the oxygen may be masking hypoventilation
  3. CThe patient is safe, because the oxygen saturation is normal
  4. DThe PCA dose should be increased to keep the patient comfortable
7.Clinical nursingMedium

A patient with renal colic is asked to pass urine through a strainer. Why?

  1. ATo catch any stone so that it can be analysed
  2. BTo measure the urine's pH and specific gravity
  3. CTo remove bacteria from the urine
  4. DTo make passing urine less painful
8.Clinical nursingHard

A patient who speaks little English needs to give consent for a procedure. Their 14-year-old child offers to interpret. What is the best action?

  1. ALet the child interpret to save time
  2. BUse gestures and proceed
  3. CArrange a professional interpreter
  4. DAsk the patient to sign the form without explanation
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A patient with schizophrenia is starting clozapine. Which laboratory value must be monitored regularly?

  1. AInternational normalized ratio
  2. BSerum amylase
  3. CAbsolute neutrophil count
  4. DSerum lithium level
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient admitted with heavy alcohol use and malnutrition has a glucose of 52 mg/dL (2.9 mmol/L) and low magnesium. Which prescribed treatment should be given before the IV glucose?

  1. AIV potassium
  2. BOral iron
  3. CIV thiamine
  4. DIV insulin
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium

A practice gas shows a metabolic acidosis with HCO₃⁻ 8 mmol/L. Use Winter’s formula to find the expected PaCO₂ (the centre of the range) in mmHg.

HCO₃⁻ 8 mmol/L
PaCO₂ = mmHg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
pH7.357.457.22PaCO₂mmHg354523HCO₃⁻mmol/L22269added normal-gap acidosispure high-gap acidosisadded metabolic alkalosis

A practice gas shows pH 7.22, PaCO₂ 23 mmHg (3.1 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 9 mmol/L, with Na⁺ 142 and Cl⁻ 116 mmol/L. Use the anion gap and the delta ratio to click the best interpretation.

pH 7.22PaCO₂ 23 mmHg (3.1 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 9 mmol/LNa⁺ 142 mmol/LCl⁻ 116 mmol/L
  1. 1added normal-gap acidosis
  2. 2pure high-gap acidosis
  3. 3added metabolic alkalosis
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

This lead II strip shows atrial flutter. How many flutter waves per QRS complex are there (the n of n:1 conduction)?

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
flutter waves per QRS =
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVsinus tachycardiaatrial fibrillationventricular tachycardiatorsades de pointes

Identify the rhythm on this lead II strip. Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1sinus tachycardia
  2. 2atrial fibrillation
  3. 3ventricular tachycardia
  4. 4torsades de pointes
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A nurse finds a patient on the floor next to the bed. What is the first action?

  1. AAssess the patient for responsiveness and injury before moving them
  2. BComplete an incident report while the details are fresh
  3. CHelp the patient straight back into bed with the help of a colleague
  4. DCall the patient’s family to explain what happened
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

Which patient is the best choice to move out of intensive care to make room for a new admission?

  1. AOn a norepinephrine infusion whose dose was increased this morning
  2. BIntubated 1 hour ago for respiratory failure, still sedated
  3. CExtubated 2 days ago, stable on 2 L/min nasal oxygen, no vasoactive infusions
  4. DAdmitted overnight with a GI bleed and still receiving blood

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: B · Use the reliever inhaler shortly before exercise and warm up

Why this is the answer

A short-acting bronchodilator taken shortly before exercise, a gradual warm-up and covering the mouth in cold air help prevent symptoms. Frequent exercise symptoms may mean asthma is poorly controlled and preventer treatment needs review.

Answer

B · Use the reliever inhaler shortly before exercise and warm up
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · Respect the decision, inform the prescriber and discuss non-animal options

Why this is the answer

Most heparins are derived from porcine intestine. Patients have the right to know and to decline. The nurse informs the prescriber, who can consider synthetic alternatives (such as fondaparinux) or mechanical prophylaxis, and documents the discussion.

Answer

A · Respect the decision, inform the prescriber and discuss non-animal options
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: A · Older adults often show infection as confusion

Why this is the answer

In older adults, infections such as UTI may present with delirium, falls or reduced mobility rather than dysuria or fever. Other causes of delirium must also be considered, and urine tests alone can mislead.

Answer

A · Older adults often show infection as confusion
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: B · A second-line IV drug such as levetiracetam or phenytoin

Why this is the answer

Status epilepticus that continues after two doses of benzodiazepine (established status) is treated with a second-line IV drug. If it still continues (refractory status), anaesthesia and intubation in critical care are needed. Glucose, airway and monitoring continue throughout. Repeated benzodiazepines increase respiratory depression without much extra benefit.

Answer

B · A second-line IV drug such as levetiracetam or phenytoin
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: B · Nausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given

Why this is the answer

Anticipatory nausea is a conditioned response after previous poorly controlled nausea, triggered by sights or smells linked to treatment. Good antiemetic control from the first cycle helps prevent it; relaxation techniques and anxiolytics may help.

Answer

B · Nausea triggered by reminders of treatment before it is given
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: B · Opioid toxicity is likely; the oxygen may be masking hypoventilation

Why this is the answer

Supplemental oxygen can keep SpO₂ normal while CO₂ rises from hypoventilation. Increasing sedation is an early sign of opioid toxicity. The nurse stops the PCA, stimulates the patient, calls for help and follows the naloxone protocol, monitoring respiratory rate, depth and sedation closely.

Answer

B · Opioid toxicity is likely; the oxygen may be masking hypoventilation
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · To catch any stone so that it can be analysed

Why this is the answer

Collecting a passed stone allows its composition to be identified, which helps guide diet and treatment to prevent recurrence.

Answer

A · To catch any stone so that it can be analysed
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: C · Arrange a professional interpreter

Why this is the answer

Professional interpreters provide accurate, impartial translation and protect confidentiality. Children and family members should not be used for important clinical discussions such as consent.

Answer

C · Arrange a professional interpreter
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Absolute neutrophil count

Why this is the answer

Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia (agranulocytosis), so the ANC is checked before starting and regularly during treatment. A sore throat, fever or other sign of infection must be reported at once.

Answer

C · Absolute neutrophil count
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · IV thiamine

Why this is the answer

People with alcohol use disorder and malnutrition are often deficient in thiamine. Giving glucose first can use up the remaining thiamine and precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy, so thiamine is usually given before or with glucose. Hypoglycemia must still be treated promptly.

Answer

C · IV thiamine
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: PaCO₂ = 20 mmHg

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Winter’s formula

PaCO₂ = 1.5·8 + 8 = 20 mmHg
range: 18–22 mmHg

Answer

PaCO₂ = 20 mmHg
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: added normal-gap acidosis

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Anion gap

AG = 142 − (116 + 9) = 17

Delta ratio

(17 − 12)/(24 − 9) = 0.3333
added normal-gap acidosis

Answer

added normal-gap acidosis
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: flutter waves per QRS = 4

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Flutter waves

F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute

QRS complexes

R–R = 20 small boxes = 0.80 s → 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 75 = 4:1

Answer

flutter waves per QRS = 4
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: ventricular tachycardia

Ventricular rhythms: ventricular tachycardia is a run of three or more wide (0.12 s or more) complexes in a row at more than 100/min, usually 150–250/min, regular, without related P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is a chaotic, irregular waveform with no identifiable P waves, QRS complexes or T waves and no countable rate. Asystole is an almost flat line with no ventricular activity; a flat line is always confirmed by checking the patient, the leads and the gain and a second lead. In resuscitation guidelines VF and pulseless VT are the shockable rhythms and asystole is not.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 10 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 10 ≈ 150 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.40 s.
3. P waves: none identifiable.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.14 s, wide (0.12 s or more).

Interpretation

ventricular tachycardia

Answer

ventricular tachycardia

In resuscitation guidelines VF and pulseless VT are the shockable rhythms. This is identification practice only.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: A · Assess the patient for responsiveness and injury before moving them

Why this is the answer

The nurse first checks responsiveness, breathing and injuries such as head trauma or a hip fracture. Only then is the patient moved safely, with help. The provider is informed, and the report is completed afterwards.

Answer

A · Assess the patient for responsiveness and injury before moving them
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: C · Extubated 2 days ago, stable on 2 L/min nasal oxygen, no vasoactive infusions

Why this is the answer

The extubated patient on low-flow oxygen with no vasoactive drugs is stable and improving. Recent intubation, rising vasopressor needs and an active bleed all need ICU-level care.

Answer

C · Extubated 2 days ago, stable on 2 L/min nasal oxygen, no vasoactive infusions

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