Medical-Surgical Nursing: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 16 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

2Practice problems

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

A patient uses a glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin) patch for angina. Why is it usually removed for several hours each day?

  1. AA nitrate-free interval prevents tolerance
  2. BIt lowers the risk of a high potassium level
  3. CThe skin needs a break to absorb a larger dose
  4. DThe patch works only during the night
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient's chest drain tubing disconnects from the drainage unit. What should the nurse do first?

  1. ARemove the drain from the chest and cover the site
  2. BLeave it open to air until the doctor arrives to review it
  3. CClamp the tube for several hours and recheck the patient later
  4. DReconnect it, or put the tube end in sterile water, then assess
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

Why is metformin usually withheld during acute kidney injury or around iodinated contrast in at-risk patients?

  1. AIt blocks the contrast so the scan cannot be read
  2. BIt causes severe hypoglycaemia when given together with contrast
  3. CIt can accumulate and raise the risk of lactic acidosis
  4. DIt causes hyperkalaemia when the kidneys are injured
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

A man who takes tamsulosin for BPH is listed for cataract surgery. Which statement is correct?

  1. AIt should be swapped for oxybutynin the night before to protect the eye
  2. BThe dose should be doubled before surgery to prevent urinary retention
  3. CTamsulosin has no effects outside the urinary tract, so nothing changes
  4. DThe eye surgeon must be told, as it can cause floppy iris during surgery
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

Which measures help prevent tumour lysis syndrome in high-risk patients?

  1. AIV hydration with allopurinol or rasburicase
  2. BStopping all IV and oral fluids during the chemotherapy
  3. CFluid restriction with potassium tablets
  4. DCalcium and phosphate supplements daily
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

A patient with breast cancer becomes confused, thirsty and constipated, with polyuria. Which oncological emergency should be considered?

  1. ASuperior vena cava obstruction
  2. BHypoglycaemia
  3. CHypercalcaemia of malignancy
  4. DTumour lysis syndrome
7.Clinical nursingMedium

A patient with liver cirrhosis becomes confused and drowsy, with a flapping tremor of the hands. Which complication is likely?

  1. AHepatic encephalopathy
  2. BStroke
  3. CAlcohol intoxication only
  4. DHypoglycaemia caused by insulin
8.Clinical nursingHard

Which sign is often a late finding in hypovolaemic shock in a young, previously fit adult?

  1. AA fall in blood pressure
  2. BA rise in heart rate
  3. CA slightly raised respiratory rate
  4. DCool peripheries
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A healthy woman at 28 weeks of pregnancy has a mildly lower hemoglobin than before pregnancy, with a normal MCV and ferritin. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. AIron is being lost through the kidneys during the pregnancy
  2. BPregnancy hormones stop the bone marrow from making red cells
  3. CPlasma volume rises more than red cell mass, diluting the blood
  4. DThe fetus is destroying the mother's red cells in the circulation
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient with jaundice and nausea has a positive IgM antibody to hepatitis A virus (IgM anti-HAV). What does this show?

  1. AA current or recent hepatitis A infection
  2. BPast hepatitis B infection that has cleared
  3. CChronic hepatitis A lasting many years
  4. DImmunity from hepatitis A vaccine long ago
11.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
pH7.357.457.15PaCO₂mmHg354521HCO₃⁻mmol/L22267uncompensatedpartially compensatedfully compensated

A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.15, PaCO₂ 21 mmHg (2.8 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L. The primary disorder is metabolic acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.

pH 7.15PaCO₂ 21 mmHg (2.8 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L
  1. 1uncompensated
  2. 2partially compensated
  3. 3fully compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard

A practice gas shows a metabolic alkalosis with HCO₃⁻ 46 mmol/L. Use expected PaCO₂ = 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21 to find the expected PaCO₂.

HCO₃⁻ 46 mmol/L
PaCO₂ = mmHg
13.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

Measure the QT interval and the R–R interval on this regular lead II strip, then calculate the rate-corrected QTc with Bazett’s formula QTc = QT/√RR (both in seconds). Give the answer in seconds to three decimals.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
QTc = s
14.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVsecond-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)third-degree (complete) AV blockjunctional rhythmsecond-degree AV block type II

This lead II strip shows a conduction problem between the atria and the ventricles. Which rhythm is it? Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach)
  2. 2third-degree (complete) AV block
  3. 3junctional rhythm
  4. 4second-degree AV block type II
15.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A patient uses patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) after surgery. Which statement by a family member shows a need for further teaching?

  1. A“The pump has limits set by the nurse so she cannot get too much at once.”
  2. B“I will press the button for her while she is asleep so she stays comfortable.”
  3. C“I will tell the nurse if she becomes very sleepy or hard to wake.”
  4. D“Only she should press the button when she needs pain relief.”
16.Prioritization & delegationHard

A patient on airborne precautions for suspected tuberculosis must go to the radiology department. What should the patient wear during transport?

  1. AA surgical mask
  2. BNothing, if the trip is short
  3. CA fit-tested N95 respirator
  4. DGloves and a gown only

3Solutions

1.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: A · A nitrate-free interval prevents tolerance

Why this is the answer

Continuous nitrate use leads to tolerance within days. A daily nitrate-free period (often overnight, when angina is least likely) keeps the drug effective. Patients are taught to rotate patch sites.

Answer

A · A nitrate-free interval prevents tolerance
2.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: D · Reconnect it, or put the tube end in sterile water, then assess

Why this is the answer

A disconnected tube lets atmospheric air enter the pleural space. Reconnecting quickly, or submerging the tube end 2–3 cm in sterile water as a temporary seal, restores the one-way valve. Then assess for respiratory distress and inform the team. Prolonged clamping risks tension pneumothorax.

Answer

D · Reconnect it, or put the tube end in sterile water, then assess
3.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: C · It can accumulate and raise the risk of lactic acidosis

Why this is the answer

Metformin is excreted by the kidneys. In AKI, or when contrast could worsen kidney function, it may accumulate and increase the risk of lactic acidosis. It is withheld according to kidney function and local guidance and restarted when renal function is stable.

Answer

C · It can accumulate and raise the risk of lactic acidosis
4.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · The eye surgeon must be told, as it can cause floppy iris during surgery

Why this is the answer

Tamsulosin blocks alpha-1A receptors in the iris dilator muscle as well as in the prostate, which can cause intraoperative floppy iris syndrome during cataract surgery. The effect can persist after the drug is stopped, so the surgeon must know in advance to plan the operation. Whether to pause it is a decision for the team.

Answer

D · The eye surgeon must be told, as it can cause floppy iris during surgery
5.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: A · IV hydration with allopurinol or rasburicase

Why this is the answer

Prevention includes aggressive hydration to maintain high urine output, allopurinol (reduces uric acid production) or rasburicase (breaks down uric acid) and close monitoring of electrolytes, renal function and urine output.

Answer

A · IV hydration with allopurinol or rasburicase
6.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: C · Hypercalcaemia of malignancy

Why this is the answer

Hypercalcaemia of malignancy causes thirst, polyuria, dehydration, constipation, nausea, confusion and arrhythmias. Treatment is IV fluids followed by a bisphosphonate, with monitoring of calcium and renal function. Tumour lysis causes low calcium.

Answer

C · Hypercalcaemia of malignancy
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · Hepatic encephalopathy

Why this is the answer

Hepatic encephalopathy causes confusion and asterixis. Lactulose is commonly used to reduce ammonia absorption and treat precipitants such as infection or bleeding.

Answer

A · Hepatic encephalopathy
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: A · A fall in blood pressure

Why this is the answer

Young adults compensate for blood loss with tachycardia and vasoconstriction, so blood pressure may stay normal until a large volume is lost. Hypotension is therefore a late and serious sign.

Answer

A · A fall in blood pressure
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Plasma volume rises more than red cell mass, diluting the blood

Why this is the answer

In pregnancy, plasma volume increases by more than red cell mass, so the hemoglobin falls slightly (physiologic or dilutional anemia). Iron deficiency is still common in pregnancy and is checked with the MCV and ferritin.Checked against: Anemia · StatPearls (NCBI Bookshelf) (2026)

Answer

C · Plasma volume rises more than red cell mass, diluting the blood
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: A · A current or recent hepatitis A infection

Why this is the answer

IgM antibodies appear early, so IgM anti-HAV indicates acute hepatitis A. IgG anti-HAV alone shows past infection or vaccination and lifelong immunity. Hepatitis A does not become chronic and spreads by the fecal-oral route, so hand hygiene is essential.Checked against: Hepatitis A · MedlinePlus (NIH) (2025)

Answer

A · A current or recent hepatitis A infection
11.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: partially compensated

Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.

ROME, value by value

pH 7.15: acidaemia (below 7.35)
PaCO₂ 21 mmHg: low (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 7 mmol/L: low (22–26)

Compensation

Clinically, also check the expected compensation: Winter’s formula expects PaCO₂ 16.5–20.5 mmHg, so the measured 21 mmHg points to an additional respiratory acidosis (a mixed disorder). The answer above is the ROME exam classification.

partially compensated

Answer

partially compensated
12.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: PaCO₂ = 53.2 mmHg

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Expected PaCO₂

0.7·46 + 21 = 53.2 mmHg

Answer

PaCO₂ = 53.2 mmHg

The rise has a limit: PaCO₂ rarely goes above about 55 mmHg from compensation alone.

13.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: QTc = 0.402 s

QT and QTc: the QT interval runs from the start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. It shortens as the heart rate rises, so it is corrected for rate with the R–R interval in seconds: Bazett QTc = QT/√RR and Fridericia QTc = QT/∛RR. Bazett is the formula most textbooks use; it over-corrects at fast rates, where Fridericia is preferred. Limits differ between references: a QTc above about 0.45 s in men or 0.46 s in women is usually called prolonged, and above 0.50 s markedly prolonged.

Measure

QT = 9 × 0.04 = 0.36 s
RR = 20 × 0.04 = 0.80 s

Bazett’s formula

QTc = 0.36/√0.80 = 0.36/0.8944 = 0.402 s

Answer

QTc = 0.402 s

Within the usual limits (about 0.45 s for men, 0.46 s for women). (402 ms)

14.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: third-degree (complete) AV block

AV blocks: march out the P waves and check which ones are followed by a QRS. First-degree: every P conducted, PR constant and above 0.20 s. Second-degree type I (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): the PR lengthens from beat to beat until one P wave is not conducted, then the cycle starts again (group beating). Second-degree type II (Mobitz II): the PR of the conducted beats stays constant, and P waves are suddenly not conducted; the QRS is often wide. Third-degree (complete) block: P waves and QRS complexes are each regular but independent, the PR varies at random and the atrial rate is faster than the escape rate (junctional 40–60/min with a narrow QRS, ventricular 20–40/min with a wide QRS). A 2:1 block cannot be called type I or type II from one strip.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 51 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 51 ≈ 29 per minute.
2. Rhythm: R–R regular (2.04 s) and P–P regular (0.76 s), but the two are independent.
3. P waves: upright and regular at 79 per minute, but not linked to the QRS complexes; some hide in a QRS or a T wave.
4. PR interval: varies from beat to beat; there is no fixed relation.
5. QRS: 0.14 s, wide (0.12 s or more).

Interpretation

third-degree (complete) AV block

Answer

third-degree (complete) AV block

Type II and third-degree blocks are the ones that can suddenly progress, so textbooks rank them as more serious than type I.

15.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: B · “I will press the button for her while she is asleep so she stays comfortable.”

Why this is the answer

PCA is safe because a sleepy patient cannot press the button. If someone else presses it, the patient can receive too much opioid and develop respiratory depression.

Answer

B · “I will press the button for her while she is asleep so she stays comfortable.”
16.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: A · A surgical mask

Why this is the answer

A patient with an airborne infection wears a surgical mask outside the isolation room to contain respiratory particles. Staff caring for the patient wear fit-tested respirators, and the receiving department is told in advance.

Answer

A · A surgical mask

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/medical-surgical-nursing