NCLEX-style practice questions (RN): cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 40 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Infection control & patient safety

Method

  1. Start with standard precautions for every patient: hand hygiene, PPE for the expected exposure, safe sharps.
  2. Add precautions by route: contact (gown, gloves), droplet (surgical mask), airborne (N95, negative-pressure room).
  3. Keep sterile items sterile: if in doubt, it is not sterile; replace, never wipe.
  4. Prevent harm in the environment: fall measures, restraints only as a last resort, RACE and PASS for fire.
  5. Check the rights of medication administration, two identifiers and extra safeguards for high-alert drugs; report errors and near misses.

Prioritization & delegation

Method

  1. Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
  2. Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
  3. Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
  4. Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
  5. For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.

Lab values & electrolytes

Method

  1. Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
  2. Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
  3. Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
  4. Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
  5. Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.

Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Method

  1. Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
  2. Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
  3. Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
  4. Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
  5. Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.

Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Method

  1. Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
  2. Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
  3. For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
  4. For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
  5. For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.

Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Method

  1. Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
  2. Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
  3. For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
  4. For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
  5. For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.

Maternity & obstetric nursing

Method

  1. Place the woman in time: weeks of pregnancy, stage of labour or day after birth, and decide what is normal at that point.
  2. Look for the patient in danger: the mother, the fetus or the newborn, or more than one of them.
  3. Link the finding to its cause: VEAL CHOP for decelerations, the four Ts for bleeding, BUBBLE-HE after birth.
  4. Choose the action that improves blood flow and oxygen first (side-lying, stopping oxytocin, fundal massage), then escalate.

Pediatric nursing

Method

  1. Note the child’s age first: it sets the normal vital signs, the milestones and the right pain scale.
  2. Assess airway, breathing and circulation, remembering that children compensate and then deteriorate fast.
  3. Match the action to the development stage and involve the family.
  4. Check that the answer is safe for a child: weight-based, no aspirin in viral illness, no codeine under 12.

Mental health nursing

Method

  1. Decide whether there is an immediate risk: suicide, violence, a drug emergency or a physical illness.
  2. Act on safety first: observe, remove means, de-escalate, stop a harmful drug, get help.
  3. Choose the therapeutic response: acknowledge feelings, present reality, avoid false reassurance and “why” questions.
  4. Respect rights: the least restrictive option, consent and confidentiality with its limits.

Nursing math & unit conversions

Metric steps
1 kg = 1000 g, 1 g = 1000 mg, 1 mg = 1000 mcg, 1 L = 1000 mL
Weight and length
1 kg = 2.2 lb, 1 lb = 16 oz, 1 in = 2.54 cm, 1 ft = 12 in
Household measures
1 tsp = 5 mL, 1 tbsp = 15 mL, 1 fl oz = 30 mL, 1 cup = 8 fl oz = 240 mL
Temperature
°C = (°F − 32)·5/9, °F = °C·9/5 + 32
24-hour clock
PM hours 1–11: add 12; 12 AM = 00:xx; 12 PM = 12:xx
Dose rate
mcg/min × 60/1000 = mg/h
Laboratory factors
glucose 1 mmol/L = 18 mg/dL; creatinine 1 mg/dL = 88.4 µmol/L; Hb 1 g/dL = 10 g/L

Method

  1. Write the given quantity with its unit and the unit you want.
  2. Pick the equivalent: 1000 between kg, g, mg and mcg or L and mL; 1 kg = 2.2 lb; 1 tsp = 5 mL, 1 tbsp = 15 mL, 1 fl oz = 30 mL, 1 cup = 240 mL.
  3. Write it as a fraction so that the unwanted unit cancels; for a rate, use one fraction per unit that changes.
  4. Check the direction: a smaller unit gives a bigger number.
  5. Round only the final answer, to the precision the question names.

Dosage calculations

Dose from strength
volume = dose / strength
Weight-based dose
dose = mg/kg × body weight
Tablets
number = dose / tablet strength
Units
1 g = 1000 mg, 1 mg = 1000 mcg

Method

  1. Convert the ordered dose and the stock strength to the same unit.
  2. Use desired over have times quantity: (D/H) × Q.
  3. For weight-based doses, multiply by the weight in kg first, then divide the daily dose by the number of doses.
  4. Estimate first and check that the answer is reasonable.

IV infusion rates

Pump rate
mL/h = volume (mL)/time (h)
Drip rate
drops/min = volume (mL) × drop factor / time (min)
Infusion time
time (h) = volume (mL)/rate (mL/h)

Method

  1. Pump rate in mL/h: volume divided by time in hours.
  2. Drip rate in drops/min: volume × drop factor divided by time in minutes.
  3. For time remaining: volume left divided by the rate.
  4. Round as the question or the equipment requires.

Pediatric & critical-care dosing

Daily dose
mg/day = mg/kg/day × weight (kg)
Doses per day
number = 24 h / dosing interval (h)
Pounds to kilograms
kg = lb / 2.2
Infusion concentration
units/mL = units in bag / bag volume
Pump rate
mL/h = dose per hour / concentration
Titrated drip
mL/h = mcg/kg/min × kg × 60 / (mcg/mL)
Dose from pump rate
mcg/kg/min = mL/h × (mcg/mL) / (60 × kg)
Units
1 mg = 1000 mcg

IV fluids & fluid balance

Holliday–Segar per hour
4 mL/kg (first 10 kg) + 2 mL/kg (next 10 kg) + 1 mL/kg (each kg above 20)
Holliday–Segar per day
100 / 50 / 20 mL/kg for the same bands
Fluid balance
intake − output
Ice chips
count as half their volume
Urine output
mL/kg/h = mL / (kg × h)
Infusion time
time (h) = volume left (mL) / rate (mL/h)
Volume infused
mL = rate × time

Clinical assessment scores

Glasgow Coma Scale
GCS = E (1–4) + V (1–5) + M (1–6) = 3–15
APGAR
5 signs × 0–2 = 0–10; 7–10 reassuring, 4–6 moderately abnormal, 0–3 low
Braden scale
5 × (1–4) + 1 × (1–3) = 6–23; ≤ 18 at risk
Morse fall scale
falls 25, diagnosis 15, aid 15/30, IV 20, gait 10/20, mental status 15
NEWS2 risk
0–4 low; single 3 low–medium; 5–6 medium; ≥ 7 high
Mean arterial pressure
MAP = (SBP + 2·DBP)/3 = DBP + PP/3
Pulse pressure and shock index
PP = SBP − DBP, SI = HR/SBP
Body mass index
BMI = kg/m² = 703·lb/in²

Method

  1. Find the score sheet that the question uses and its range (GCS 3–15, APGAR 0–10, Braden 6–23, Morse 0–125).
  2. Score every item separately, matching the description to its level.
  3. Add the item scores and check that the total lies inside the range.
  4. Apply the cut-offs: for NEWS2 also look for any single parameter scoring 3.
  5. For derived values use MAP = (SBP + 2·DBP)/3, PP = SBP − DBP, SI = HR/SBP and BMI = kg/m².

Arterial blood gas interpretation

Normal ranges
pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg (4.7–6.0 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 22–26 mmol/L
ROME
Respiratory: PaCO₂ opposite to pH; Metabolic: HCO₃⁻ equal to pH
Winter’s formula
PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2
Metabolic alkalosis
PaCO₂ ≈ 0.7·HCO₃⁻ + 21
Anion gap
AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) ≈ 8–12
Albumin-corrected gap
AG + 2.5·(4.0 − alb g/dL) = AG + 0.25·(40 − alb g/L)
Delta ratio
(AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻)
P/F ratio
PaO₂/FiO₂
Alveolar gas equation
PAO₂ = FiO₂·(760 − 47) − PaCO₂/0.8
Serum osmolality
2·Na⁺ + glucose + urea (2·Na⁺ + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8)

Method

  1. Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
  2. Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
  3. Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
  4. In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
  5. Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.

ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)

Method

  1. Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
  2. Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
  3. P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
  4. PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
  5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.

2Practice problems

1.Nursing fundamentalsMedium

What does the Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) assess?

  1. ASwallowing ability
  2. BThe level of pain
  3. CThe risk of falling
  4. DThe risk of malnutrition
2.Nursing fundamentalsHard

Which task is most appropriate for a registered nurse to delegate to a healthcare assistant (nursing assistant)?

  1. AAssessing a newly admitted patient's falls risk
  2. BHelping a stable patient walk to the bathroom
  3. CTeaching a patient how to use crutches
  4. DEvaluating a patient who has just fallen
3.Infection control & patient safetyMedium

A patient with delirium is at risk of falls and of pulling out lines. Which option is less restrictive than restraints?

  1. AA vest restraint applied for the whole night
  2. BFour side rails raised and the door closed so the patient stays in bed
  3. CA sedative given every few hours as needed
  4. DA trained sitter or video monitoring with staff nearby
4.Infection control & patient safetyHard

A competent patient at high risk of falls insists on walking to the bathroom alone. What is the best nursing approach?

  1. ARemove the patient’s shoes and walking aid so that they cannot walk alone
  2. BExplain the risks, agree on ways to reduce them, respect the decision and document
  3. CApply wrist restraints so the patient stays in bed
  4. DTell the patient that walking alone is against hospital law
5.Prioritization & delegationMedium

A patient’s urinary catheter has drained no urine for two hours, and the lower abdomen is swollen. What should the nurse do first?

  1. ACheck the tubing for kinks or obstruction
  2. BRemove the catheter and wait for the patient to void
  3. CEncourage the patient to drink more water
  4. DGive a prescribed diuretic straight away
6.Prioritization & delegationHard

A marathon runner is confused, with a temperature of 41 °C and hot skin. What is the priority?

  1. AWrapping the runner in a blanket to prevent shivering
  2. BAsking the runner to rest in the shade and drink slowly
  3. CGiving an antipyretic tablet and waiting for it to work
  4. DRapid cooling while supporting airway and circulation
7.Clinical nursingMedium

After a total hip replacement through a posterior approach, which movement should the patient usually avoid in the early weeks?

  1. AWalking short distances with a frame and a physiotherapist
  2. BLying on their back
  3. CBending the hip beyond 90 degrees or crossing the legs
  4. DDoing gentle ankle exercises
8.Clinical nursingHard

A patient on an unfractionated heparin infusion is also started on warfarin. Which tests are used to monitor each drug?

  1. AD-dimer for both drugs
  2. BINR for heparin and APTT for warfarin
  3. CAPTT for heparin and INR for warfarin
  4. DPlatelet count for both drugs
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium

A urine culture report states "mixed growth of three organisms, likely contamination." What is the nurse's best response?

  1. AInform the provider and arrange a new, correctly collected sample
  2. BRecord the result as a confirmed urinary tract infection
  3. CStart treatment for all three organisms with three antibiotics
  4. DDiscard the report, because a mixed growth is always normal
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard

A patient with a stable INR on warfarin starts rifampin (rifampicin) for tuberculosis. Two weeks later the INR is 1.3. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. ARifampin raises the INR, so it is wrong
  2. BRifampin contains a lot of vitamin K
  3. CRifampin speeds up warfarin metabolism
  4. DTuberculosis causes the INR to fall
11.PharmacologyMedium

A patient takes regular paracetamol (acetaminophen) at home. Which teaching point best prevents accidental overdose?

  1. AUse paracetamol only on an empty stomach
  2. BTake paracetamol with alcohol to improve absorption
  3. CTake an extra dose if the first one does not work within 10 minutes
  4. DCheck cold and flu remedies, as many also contain paracetamol
12.PharmacologyHard

A breastfeeding mother needs a mild analgesic. Which drug is generally considered compatible with breastfeeding?

  1. ACodeine (as co-codamol)
  2. BParacetamol (acetaminophen)
  3. CAspirin
  4. DPethidine (meperidine)
13.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium

A patient taking isosorbide mononitrate asks about sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. What is the main danger?

  1. AA very high potassium level
  2. BSevere hypertension
  3. CBleeding from the gums
  4. DSevere hypotension
14.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard

A patient with squamous cell lung cancer becomes confused, thirsty and constipated, with abdominal pain. Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely?

  1. AHypomagnesaemia
  2. BHyponatraemia
  3. CHypercalcaemia
  4. DHypokalaemia
15.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium

Why do patients with CKD often take phosphate binders with meals?

  1. AThey lower blood potassium by binding it in the gut
  2. BThey increase the absorption of phosphate from food in the gut
  3. CThey replace the missing hormone erythropoietin
  4. DThey bind food phosphate that the kidneys cannot excrete
16.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard

After a stroke, a patient suddenly cries or laughs at odd moments. They say they do not feel sad. Which response is most appropriate?

  1. AIgnore it, because it shows that the patient is seeking attention from the staff
  2. BAsk the doctor for a sedative to stop the outbursts
  3. CTell the patient that crying will slow their recovery
  4. DExplain that this is emotional lability after stroke and help the family understand
17.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium

What is the main treatment for a venous leg ulcer with an adequate arterial supply?

  1. AStrong oral antibiotics for all ulcers
  2. BCompression therapy
  3. CSurgery to amputate the limb
  4. DKeeping the leg hanging down all day
18.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard

In week 5 of radiotherapy, the skin in the treatment field is broken, moist and painful. What should the nurse do?

  1. AApply adhesive tape directly over the area to protect it from clothing
  2. BUse a heat pad to speed healing
  3. CReport it, keep it clean and use a non-adherent dressing
  4. DScrub the area with soap to prevent infection
19.Maternity & obstetric nursingMedium

Which baseline variability is considered moderate (normal)?

  1. AAn amplitude of 0 to 2 bpm
  2. BAn amplitude of more than 25 bpm
  3. CAn amplitude of 3 to 5 bpm
  4. DAn amplitude of 6 to 25 bpm
20.Maternity & obstetric nursingHard

A newborn's bilirubin is rising quickly at 30 hours despite phototherapy, and the baby is lethargic with an arched back and high-pitched cry. What does this suggest?

  1. AAcute bilirubin encephalopathy
  2. BMild breast milk jaundice
  3. CA normal reaction to phototherapy
  4. DNormal newborn reflexes
21.Pediatric nursingMedium

Which group of findings suggests Kawasaki disease?

  1. ALow-grade fever, a barking cough and stridor that are worse at night
  2. BFever with an itchy vesicular rash that starts on the trunk, spreads outwards and crusts over within days
  3. CFever for at least 5 days, red eyes without discharge, cracked red lips and swollen hands and feet
  4. DHigh fever for 3 days, then a pink rash as the fever settles
22.Pediatric nursingHard

Which finding in a 3-month-old with bronchiolitis requires immediate follow-up?

  1. AA runny nose and mild cough
  2. BWheeze heard on auscultation
  3. CFeeding slightly less than usual but still with wet nappies
  4. DPauses in breathing (apnoea) and an oxygen saturation of 88%
23.Mental health nursingMedium

A patient in a manic episode makes repeated sexual comments to a nurse. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. ARespond with similar comments to build rapport
  2. BAvoid the patient for the rest of the shift
  3. CCalmly say that the comments are not acceptable and redirect him
  4. DLaugh at the comments so he does not feel rejected
24.Mental health nursingHard

A patient is pacing, has clenched fists and is shouting at staff. What is the most appropriate first approach?

  1. AStand close to the patient and raise your voice so that you clearly take control of the situation
  2. BUse calm verbal de-escalation, keep a safe distance and make sure both of you have an exit
  3. CRestrain the patient immediately
  4. DTurn your back and ignore the behaviour
25.Nursing math & unit conversionsMedium
3.3898 mL? mLround to 0.1 mL

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A dose calculation for an injection gives 3.3898 mL. The rule in this exercise is that volumes of 1 mL or more are rounded to the nearest tenth of a mL. What value x do you record?

3.3898 mL
x = mL
26.Nursing math & unit conversionsHard
5 mcg/kg/min? mg/h58 kg1 h = 60 min1 mg = 1000 mcg

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). An order reads 5 mcg/kg/min for a patient who weighs 58 kg. Express the dose rate D in mg/h. Round to two decimal places.

5 mcg/kg/min58 kg
D = mg/h
27.Dosage calculationsMedium
5%w/vV = ? mL

A dose of 100 mg is needed from a 5% (w/v) solution. What volume V contains this dose?

100 mg5% w/v
V = mL
28.Dosage calculationsHard
00.10.20.30.40.50.60.70.80.911 mL

The prescription is 3300 units of a drug that comes as 5000 units/mL. Draw up the dose in the 1 mL syringe: what volume V do you give?

3300 units5000 units/mL
V = mL
29.IV infusion ratesMedium
500 mL20 gtt/mL2 h? gtt/min

Infuse 500 mL over 2 hours with a giving set of 20 gtt/mL. Find the drip rate R in drops per minute. Round to the nearest whole number.

500 mL2 h20 gtt/mL
R = gtt/min
30.IV infusion ratesHard
750 mL60 gtt/mL32 gtt/mint = ? h

A drip runs at 32 gtt/min through a set of 60 gtt/mL. There are 750 mL left in the bag. How many hours t until it is empty? Round to one decimal place.

32 gtt/min60 gtt/mL750 mL
t = h
31.Pediatric & critical-care dosingMedium
20 000 units500 mLheparin? mL/h62 kg15 units/kg/h

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A bag contains 20 000 units of heparin in 500 mL. The order is 15 units/kg/h for a patient who weighs 62 kg. At what rate R do you set the pump, in mL/h? Round to one decimal place.

20 000 units/500 mL15 units/kg/h62 kg
R = mL/h
32.Pediatric & critical-care dosingHard
50 mg250 mLnitroglycerin? mL/h57 kg30 mcg/min

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A patient who weighs 57 kg has an order for nitroglycerin at 30 mcg/min. The bag contains 50 mg in 250 mL. Find the pump rate R in mL/h. Round to one decimal place.

50 mg/250 mL30 mcg/min57 kg
R = mL/h
33.IV fluids & fluid balanceMedium
IntakeOutput8-hour shifttea240 mLmilk100 mLIV infusion125 mL/h × 8 hIV antibiotic2 × 50 mLurine175 mLurine150 mLurine300 mLurine425 mL

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). The record shows a patient's intake and output for one 8-hour shift. The patient weighs 102 kg. Find the average urine output U in mL/kg/h. Round to two decimal places.

102 kg8 hurine: 175 mLurine: 150 mLurine: 300 mLurine: 425 mL
U = mL/kg/h
34.IV fluids & fluid balanceHard
500 mL120 mL/hstart 13:0014:30: ? mL

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A 500 mL bag was started at 13:00 and runs by pump at 120 mL/h. How many mL V are left in the bag at 14:30?

500 mL120 mL/h13:00 → 14:30
V = mL
35.Clinical assessment scoresMedium
E2 / 4+V3 / 5+M? / 6GCS 9?

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A practice chart records GCS 9, with E2 and V3. What motor score M was recorded, and which response does it describe? Give the number.

GCS 9E2V3
M =
36.Clinical assessment scoresHard
low riskmoderate riskhigh risk

Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A practice patient is assessed with the Morse fall scale: history of falling in the last 3 months: no; secondary diagnosis: no; ambulatory aid: holds on to furniture; IV therapy or saline lock: no; gait: normal, bed rest or wheelchair; mental status: overestimates or forgets limits. Using the cut-offs 0–24 low, 25–44 moderate and 45 or more high, click the fall-risk level.

  1. 1low risk
  2. 2moderate risk
  3. 3high risk
37.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
pH7.357.457.55PaCO₂mmHg354547HCO₃⁻mmol/L222640uncompensatedpartially compensatedfully compensated

A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.55, PaCO₂ 47 mmHg (6.3 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 40 mmol/L. The primary disorder is metabolic alkalosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.

pH 7.55PaCO₂ 47 mmHg (6.3 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 40 mmol/L
  1. 1uncompensated
  2. 2partially compensated
  3. 3fully compensated
38.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard

Practice values: Na⁺ 136, Cl⁻ 93 and HCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L. Calculate the delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻), using AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻). Give two decimals.

Na⁺ 136 mmol/LCl⁻ 93 mmol/LHCO₃⁻ 14 mmol/L
delta ratio =
39.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mV

This lead II strip shows atrial flutter. How many flutter waves per QRS complex are there (the n of n:1 conduction)?

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
flutter waves per QRS =
40.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
II25 mm/s · 10 mm/mVventricular tachycardiaatrial flutter, 2:1 conductionsupraventricular tachycardia (SVT)torsades de pointes

Identify the rhythm on this lead II strip. Click your answer.

lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
  1. 1ventricular tachycardia
  2. 2atrial flutter, 2:1 conduction
  3. 3supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
  4. 4torsades de pointes

3Solutions

1.Nursing fundamentals

Answer: D · The risk of malnutrition

Why this is the answer

MUST combines body mass index, unplanned weight loss and acute disease effect into a score that shows the risk of malnutrition and guides nutritional care.

Answer

D · The risk of malnutrition
2.Nursing fundamentals

Answer: B · Helping a stable patient walk to the bathroom

Why this is the answer

Routine help with care for a stable patient can be delegated. Assessment, teaching and evaluation need registered nurse judgement.

Answer

B · Helping a stable patient walk to the bathroom
3.Infection control & patient safety

Answer: D · A trained sitter or video monitoring with staff nearby

Why this is the answer

Close observation by a sitter or video monitoring allows staff to step in quickly, without restricting the patient. It is often combined with reorientation and family presence.

Answer

D · A trained sitter or video monitoring with staff nearby
4.Infection control & patient safety

Answer: B · Explain the risks, agree on ways to reduce them, respect the decision and document

Why this is the answer

A competent patient can accept a risk. The nurse explains the danger, offers measures such as a low bed, non-slip footwear, a clear path and a call light, respects the choice and documents the discussion.

Answer

B · Explain the risks, agree on ways to reduce them, respect the decision and document
5.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: A · Check the tubing for kinks or obstruction

Why this is the answer

Sudden lack of drainage with a full bladder usually means a kinked or blocked catheter. The nurse checks the tubing and position first, then follows the policy for irrigation or replacement.

Answer

A · Check the tubing for kinks or obstruction
6.Prioritization & delegation

Answer: D · Rapid cooling while supporting airway and circulation

Why this is the answer

Heat stroke is an emergency in which body temperature rises and the brain is affected. Rapid cooling, for example with cold water or ice, is the priority; antipyretics do not work for heat stroke.

Answer

D · Rapid cooling while supporting airway and circulation
7.Clinical nursing

Answer: C · Bending the hip beyond 90 degrees or crossing the legs

Why this is the answer

Hip flexion past 90°, crossing the legs and turning the leg inwards can dislocate the hip after a posterior approach. Raised seats and toilet seats help, although specific precautions vary between units.

Answer

C · Bending the hip beyond 90 degrees or crossing the legs
8.Clinical nursing

Answer: C · APTT for heparin and INR for warfarin

Why this is the answer

The APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway and is used to adjust heparin infusions. Warfarin is monitored by the INR, a standardised prothrombin time. Platelets are also checked on heparin to detect HIT.

Answer

C · APTT for heparin and INR for warfarin
9.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: A · Inform the provider and arrange a new, correctly collected sample

Why this is the answer

Several organisms in one urine sample usually mean contamination from the skin or perineum during collection. The provider is informed, and a new clean-catch or catheter-port sample is usually needed before an infection can be confirmed.

Answer

A · Inform the provider and arrange a new, correctly collected sample
10.Lab values & electrolytes

Answer: C · Rifampin speeds up warfarin metabolism

Why this is the answer

Rifampin induces liver enzymes that break down warfarin, so warfarin's effect falls and the INR drops, increasing clot risk. The INR is monitored closely and the dose adjusted; the reverse happens when rifampin is stopped.

Answer

C · Rifampin speeds up warfarin metabolism
11.Pharmacology

Answer: D · Check cold and flu remedies, as many also contain paracetamol

Why this is the answer

Many combination products contain paracetamol, so a patient can take too much without realising. Regular alcohol use and liver disease also increase the risk of liver damage.

Answer

D · Check cold and flu remedies, as many also contain paracetamol
12.Pharmacology

Answer: B · Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

Why this is the answer

Paracetamol passes into milk in small amounts and is widely regarded as safe. Codeine can cause dangerous opioid levels in babies of ultra-rapid metaboliser mothers, aspirin carries a Reye's risk and pethidine's metabolite accumulates in infants.

Answer

B · Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
13.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: D · Severe hypotension

Why this is the answer

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors such as sildenafil enhance the vasodilator effect of nitrates and can cause profound, life-threatening hypotension. The combination is contraindicated, and patients should tell emergency staff if they have taken one.

Answer

D · Severe hypotension
14.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory

Answer: C · Hypercalcaemia

Why this is the answer

Squamous cell lung cancer can secrete PTH-related protein, and bone metastases can release calcium. Hypercalcaemia causes confusion, thirst, polyuria, constipation, abdominal pain and arrhythmias ("bones, stones, groans and psychiatric overtones"). Treatment includes IV fluids and bisphosphonates.

Answer

C · Hypercalcaemia
15.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · They bind food phosphate that the kidneys cannot excrete

Why this is the answer

In CKD, phosphate retention leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism, renal bone disease and vascular calcification. Phosphate binders taken with meals bind dietary phosphate in the gut. Dietary phosphate is also limited.

Answer

D · They bind food phosphate that the kidneys cannot excrete
16.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal

Answer: D · Explain that this is emotional lability after stroke and help the family understand

Why this is the answer

Emotional lability (pseudobulbar affect) is common after stroke: crying or laughter does not match the person's mood. Explaining it, staying calm and gently distracting the patient helps. True depression is also common and should be screened for separately.

Answer

D · Explain that this is emotional lability after stroke and help the family understand
17.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: B · Compression therapy

Why this is the answer

Graduated compression reduces venous hypertension and oedema and speeds healing. Leg elevation, exercise and treating the underlying vein disease also help.

Answer

B · Compression therapy
18.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology

Answer: C · Report it, keep it clean and use a non-adherent dressing

Why this is the answer

Moist desquamation is a more severe radiation skin reaction. The radiotherapy team is informed; the area is kept clean and covered with non-adherent dressings, avoiding adhesive on the skin, and analgesia is given. Infection is watched for.

Answer

C · Report it, keep it clean and use a non-adherent dressing
19.Maternity & obstetric nursing

Answer: D · An amplitude of 6 to 25 bpm

Why this is the answer

Moderate variability (6–25 bpm) shows an oxygenated fetus with a functioning autonomic nervous system. Minimal (5 bpm or less) or absent variability can mean hypoxia, sleep or medication effects; more than 25 bpm is marked variability.

Answer

D · An amplitude of 6 to 25 bpm
20.Maternity & obstetric nursing

Answer: A · Acute bilirubin encephalopathy

Why this is the answer

Lethargy, poor feeding, hypertonia with arching and a high-pitched cry are signs of acute bilirubin encephalopathy. An urgent exchange transfusion may be needed to prevent permanent kernicterus.

Answer

A · Acute bilirubin encephalopathy
21.Pediatric nursing

Answer: C · Fever for at least 5 days, red eyes without discharge, cracked red lips and swollen hands and feet

Why this is the answer

Kawasaki disease causes persistent fever plus features such as non-purulent conjunctivitis, red cracked lips and strawberry tongue, rash, swollen hands and feet and enlarged neck lymph nodes. The other options describe croup, chickenpox and roseola.

Answer

C · Fever for at least 5 days, red eyes without discharge, cracked red lips and swollen hands and feet
22.Pediatric nursing

Answer: D · Pauses in breathing (apnoea) and an oxygen saturation of 88%

Why this is the answer

Apnoea and low oxygen saturation are signs of severe bronchiolitis and need urgent assessment and support. The other findings are typical of mild bronchiolitis.

Answer

D · Pauses in breathing (apnoea) and an oxygen saturation of 88%
23.Mental health nursing

Answer: C · Calmly say that the comments are not acceptable and redirect him

Why this is the answer

Disinhibition is common in mania. Clear, calm limit setting and redirection protect both staff and patient and maintain boundaries without punishing him.

Answer

C · Calmly say that the comments are not acceptable and redirect him
24.Mental health nursing

Answer: B · Use calm verbal de-escalation, keep a safe distance and make sure both of you have an exit

Why this is the answer

De-escalation uses a calm voice, simple language, active listening and offering choices, while keeping a safe distance and an exit route. Restraint is a last resort if there is imminent danger.

Answer

B · Use calm verbal de-escalation, keep a safe distance and make sure both of you have an exit
25.Nursing math & unit conversions

Answer: x = 3.4 mL

Rounding: look at the digit just after the place you round to: 5 or more rounds up, 4 or less leaves the digit as it is. Round only the final answer, never the steps. Typical exam rules: volumes of 1 mL or more to the nearest tenth, volumes below 1 mL to the nearest hundredth, drip rates to whole drops and weights to one decimal place; always follow the rule the question states.

Digit in the tenths place

3.3898 → 3

Only the next digit decides

3.3898 → 8
8 is 5 or more, so round 3 up.
The digits after it (98) are ignored: round once, never step by step.

Round

x = 3.4 mL

Answer

x = 3.4 mL
26.Nursing math & unit conversions

Answer: D = 17.4 mg/h

Dimensional analysis: write the given quantity, then multiply by conversion factors written as fractions (for example 60 min/1 h or 1 mg/1000 mcg) so that each unwanted unit appears once on top and once underneath and cancels. When only the wanted unit is left, calculate. Use the equivalents the question gives and round only the final answer.

Set up the chain

D = 5 mcg/kg/min × 58 kg × (60 min/1 h) × (1 mg/1000 mcg)

Calculate

D = 5·58·60/1000 = 17.4 mg/h

Answer

D = 17.4 mg/h
27.Dosage calculations

Answer: V = 2 mL

Solution strengths: a percentage strength is grams per 100 mL, so 1% = 1 g/100 mL = 10 mg/mL. A ratio strength 1:1000 means 1 g in 1000 mL = 1 mg/mL; 1:10 000 is 0.1 mg/mL. For a dilution the amount of drug stays the same: C₁·V₁ = C₂·V₂.

Concentration

5% = 50 mg/mL

Volume

V = 100/50 = 2 mL

Answer

V = 2 mL
28.Dosage calculations

Answer: V = 0.66 mL

Drawing up a dose: volume = (prescribed dose/stock strength) × stock volume. Convert to the same units first, then check that the volume fits the syringe and lands on one of its graduations.

Volume

V = 3300/5000 = 0.66 mL

On the syringe

On this 1 mL syringe every small line is 0.01 mL.

Answer

V = 0.66 mL
29.IV infusion rates

Answer: R = 83 gtt/min

Infusion rates: a pump is set in mL/h = volume/time in hours. A gravity drip is counted in drops per minute: gtt/min = volume (mL) × drop factor (gtt/mL)/time (min). The drop factor is printed on the tubing package: macrodrip sets deliver 10, 15 or 20 gtt/mL (blood sets often 10 gtt/mL in the US, 15 in the UK) and microdrip sets 60 gtt/mL. Always use the drop factor the question or package gives.

Time in minutes

2·60 = 120 min

Drip rate

R = 500·20/120 = 83.33 ≈ 83 gtt/min

Answer

R = 83 gtt/min

At the bedside you round to the nearest whole drop: 83 gtt/min.

30.IV infusion rates

Answer: t = 23.4 h

Infusion rates: a pump is set in mL/h = volume/time in hours. A gravity drip is counted in drops per minute: gtt/min = volume (mL) × drop factor (gtt/mL)/time (min). The drop factor is printed on the tubing package: macrodrip sets deliver 10, 15 or 20 gtt/mL (blood sets often 10 gtt/mL in the US, 15 in the UK) and microdrip sets 60 gtt/mL. Always use the drop factor the question or package gives.

Rate in mL/h

32·60/60 = 32 mL/h

Time left

t = 750/32 = 23.44 ≈ 23.4 h

Answer

t = 23.4 h
31.Pediatric & critical-care dosing

Answer: R = 23.3 mL/h

Heparin and insulin infusions: concentration = units in the bag/bag volume (units/mL). Pump rate (mL/h) = units per hour/concentration, and units per hour = mL/h × concentration. For a weight-based order, units/h = units/kg/h × weight first. A bolus volume = units needed/vial strength. The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.

Units per hour

15·62 = 930 units/h

Concentration

20 000/500 = 40 units/mL

Pump rate

R = 930/40 = 23.25 ≈ 23.3 mL/h

Answer

R = 23.3 mL/h
32.Pediatric & critical-care dosing

Answer: R = 9 mL/h

Titrated drips: first find the concentration in mcg/mL (mg × 1000/mL). For a weight-based order, mcg/min = mcg/kg/min × weight. Then mL/h = mcg/min × 60/concentration. Working backwards, mcg/kg/min = mL/h × concentration/(60 × weight). The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.

Concentration

50 000/250 = 200 mcg/mL

Dose per hour

The order is per minute for the whole patient, so the weight is not needed.

30·60 = 1800 mcg/h

Pump rate

R = 1800/200 = 9 mL/h

Answer

R = 9 mL/h
33.IV fluids & fluid balance

Answer: U = 1.29 mL/kg/h

Intake and output: intake counts everything that goes in (oral fluids, IV infusions, IV medications and flushes, tube feeds); ice chips count as half their volume. Output counts urine, drains, vomit and other losses. Balance = total intake − total output; a negative balance is a net loss. The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.

Total urine

175 + 150 + 300 + 425 = 1050 mL

Per kilogram per hour

U = 1050/(102·8) = 1.287 ≈ 1.29 mL/kg/h

Answer

U = 1.29 mL/kg/h
34.IV fluids & fluid balance

Answer: V = 320 mL

Infusion time: time (h) = volume to infuse (mL)/rate (mL/h); use the volume still left in the bag, not the bag size. Volume infused = rate × time. Convert decimal hours to hours and minutes with the fraction × 60 (0.5 h = 30 min, not 50 min). The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.

Elapsed time

13:00 → 14:30 = 1.5 h

Volume infused

120·1.5 = 180 mL

Volume left

V = 500 − 180 = 320 mL

Answer

V = 320 mL
35.Clinical assessment scores

Answer: M = 4

Glasgow Coma Scale: add the best response in three areas. Eye opening E: 4 spontaneous, 3 to sound or speech, 2 to pressure, 1 none. Verbal V: 5 oriented, 4 confused, 3 inappropriate words, 2 incomprehensible sounds, 1 none. Motor M: 6 obeys commands, 5 localises, 4 normal flexion (withdraws), 3 abnormal flexion, 2 extension, 1 none. The total runs from 3 to 15. After a head injury, 13–15 is usually called mild, 9–12 moderate and 3–8 severe.

Motor score

M = 9 − 2 − 3 = 4
M4: withdraws the limb from pressure (normal flexion)

Answer

M = 4
36.Clinical assessment scores

Answer: high risk

Morse fall scale: six items. History of falling: no 0, yes 25. Secondary diagnosis: no 0, yes 15. Ambulatory aid: none, bed rest or nurse assistance 0; crutches, cane or walker 15; holding on to furniture 30. IV therapy or saline lock: no 0, yes 20. Gait: normal, bed rest or wheelchair 0; weak 10; impaired 20. Mental status: knows own limits 0; overestimates or forgets limits 15. The total runs from 0 to 125. Risk cut-offs differ between hospitals; a common set is 0–24 low, 25–44 moderate and 45 or more high.

Score each item

history of falling in the last 3 months: no → 0
secondary diagnosis: no → 0
ambulatory aid: holds on to furniture → 30
IV therapy or saline lock: no → 0
gait: normal, bed rest or wheelchair → 0
mental status: overestimates or forgets limits → 15

Add

Morse total = 0 + 0 + 30 + 0 + 0 + 15 = 45

Risk level

45 → high risk

Answer

high risk
37.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: partially compensated

Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.

ROME, value by value

pH 7.55: alkalaemia (above 7.45)
PaCO₂ 47 mmHg: high (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 40 mmol/L: high (22–26)

Compensation

partially compensated

Answer

partially compensated
38.Arterial blood gas interpretation

Answer: delta ratio = 1.7

Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.

Anion gap

AG = 136 − (93 + 14) = 29

Delta ratio

(29 − 12)/(24 − 14) = 17/10 = 1.7

Answer

delta ratio = 1.7

Between 1 and 2: a pure high anion gap acidosis.

39.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: flutter waves per QRS = 4

Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.

Flutter waves

F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute

QRS complexes

R–R = 20 small boxes = 0.80 s → 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 75 = 4:1

Answer

flutter waves per QRS = 4
40.ECG rhythm strip interpretation

Answer: ventricular tachycardia

Ventricular rhythms: ventricular tachycardia is a run of three or more wide (0.12 s or more) complexes in a row at more than 100/min, usually 150–250/min, regular, without related P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is a chaotic, irregular waveform with no identifiable P waves, QRS complexes or T waves and no countable rate. Asystole is an almost flat line with no ventricular activity; a flat line is always confirmed by checking the patient, the leads and the gain and a second lead. In resuscitation guidelines VF and pulseless VT are the shockable rhythms and asystole is not.

Five steps

1. Rate: R–R = 10 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 10 ≈ 150 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.40 s.
3. P waves: none identifiable.
4. PR interval: not measurable.
5. QRS: 0.14 s, wide (0.12 s or more).

Interpretation

ventricular tachycardia

Answer

ventricular tachycardia

In resuscitation guidelines VF and pulseless VT are the shockable rhythms. This is identification practice only.

This is independent practice material. ExamProblems is not affiliated with or endorsed by the organisation that runs this exam, and the exam name is used only to describe the content. NCLEX®, NCLEX-RN® and NCLEX-PN® are trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc. (NCSBN), which is not affiliated with ExamProblems and does not endorse it or vouch for its accuracy.

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/nclex-rn-practice-questions