Keep sterile items sterile: if in doubt, it is not sterile; replace, never wipe.
Prevent harm in the environment: fall measures, restraints only as a last resort, RACE and PASS for fire.
Check the rights of medication administration, two identifiers and extra safeguards for high-alert drugs; report errors and near misses.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
Lab values & electrolytes
Method
Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.
Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Method
Name the problem: pump failure, blocked artery, rhythm, clot, airway narrowing, infection or a device problem.
Check the danger signs first: hypoxia, hypotension, chest pain, new confusion, a cold pulseless limb.
Match the oxygen to the patient: 94–98% for most, 88–92% for those at risk of CO₂ retention.
Link each drug to its test and its risk: warfarin and INR, heparin and aPTT and platelets, diuretics and potassium.
Choose the safe first action, then escalate and reassess.
Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Method
Check the glucose in every patient with new confusion, weakness or a seizure.
Use the level of consciousness as the earliest warning of brain trouble; pupils and Cushing’s triad come late.
For diabetes emergencies, separate DKA (ketones, acidosis) from HHS (very high osmolality, dehydration); give fluids first.
For sodium and water, decide whether ADH is in excess (SIADH) or missing (DI), and correct chronic changes slowly.
For kidney problems, sort the cause into pre-renal, intrinsic or post-renal, and watch potassium and fluid.
Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Method
Ask what could be hidden: internal bleeding, infection without fever, hypoventilation behind a normal SpO₂.
Use the timing after surgery to narrow the complications: bleeding in hours, chest problems in days, wound and leak problems later.
For pain, assess, treat with multimodal analgesia, reassess, and monitor sedation with every opioid.
For cancer patients, treat any illness during the nadir as neutropenic sepsis and know the oncological emergencies.
For burns, count only partial- and full-thickness areas, start the Parkland clock at the time of the burn and titrate to urine output.
Maternity & obstetric nursing
Method
Place the woman in time: weeks of pregnancy, stage of labour or day after birth, and decide what is normal at that point.
Look for the patient in danger: the mother, the fetus or the newborn, or more than one of them.
Link the finding to its cause: VEAL CHOP for decelerations, the four Ts for bleeding, BUBBLE-HE after birth.
Choose the action that improves blood flow and oxygen first (side-lying, stopping oxytocin, fundal massage), then escalate.
Pediatric nursing
Method
Note the child’s age first: it sets the normal vital signs, the milestones and the right pain scale.
Assess airway, breathing and circulation, remembering that children compensate and then deteriorate fast.
Match the action to the development stage and involve the family.
Check that the answer is safe for a child: weight-based, no aspirin in viral illness, no codeine under 12.
Mental health nursing
Method
Decide whether there is an immediate risk: suicide, violence, a drug emergency or a physical illness.
Act on safety first: observe, remove means, de-escalate, stop a harmful drug, get help.
Choose the therapeutic response: acknowledge feelings, present reality, avoid false reassurance and “why” questions.
Respect rights: the least restrictive option, consent and confidentiality with its limits.
Nursing math & unit conversions
Metric steps
1 kg = 1000 g, 1 g = 1000 mg, 1 mg = 1000 mcg, 1 L = 1000 mL
Weight and length
1 kg = 2.2 lb, 1 lb = 16 oz, 1 in = 2.54 cm, 1 ft = 12 in
Household measures
1 tsp = 5 mL, 1 tbsp = 15 mL, 1 fl oz = 30 mL, 1 cup = 8 fl oz = 240 mL
Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
2Practice problems
1.Nursing fundamentalsMedium
Which patient is at greatest risk of injury from a heat pack?
AA patient with period pain
BA patient with reduced sensation from diabetic neuropathy
CA patient with a sore lower back after gardening
DA young adult with a stiff neck after sleeping in an awkward position
2.Nursing fundamentalsHard
A patient with type 1 diabetes is vomiting and not eating. Which advice is correct?
AHalve every dose and stop testing the glucose
BStop all insulin until eating normally again
CKeep taking basal insulin and check glucose and ketones more often
DDrink only sugar-free fluids and stop testing for ketones until better
3.Infection control & patient safetyMedium
How is a urine specimen for culture obtained from an indwelling catheter?
ABy disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tubing
BFrom the sampling port, after cleaning it, using aseptic technique
CFrom the urine already collected in the drainage bag at the bedside
DBy removing the catheter and sending its tip for culture
4.Infection control & patient safetyHard
A confused patient in wrist restraints has cool, pale fingers on one hand and a weak radial pulse on that side. What should the nurse do first?
ATighten the other restraint to stop the patient pulling
BDocument the findings carefully and recheck in two hours
CLoosen that restraint and assess the hand’s circulation
DRaise the hand on a pillow, leaving the restraint as it is
5.Prioritization & delegationMedium
A patient with diabetes is unresponsive and has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L). What should the nurse do first?
AGive IV dextrose or glucagon as prescribed
BWait 15 minutes and recheck the glucose
CPour orange juice into the patient’s mouth
DGive the scheduled dose of insulin
6.Prioritization & delegationHard
An 85-year-old resident becomes newly confused and is falling, but has no fever. Which cause should the nurse consider first?
AA sudden worsening of long-standing dementia that needs no tests
BAn infection, such as a urinary tract infection, presenting atypically
CBoredom from not having enough activities
DNormal aging that needs no assessment
7.Clinical nursingMedium
A patient with sickle cell disease is admitted with a painful crisis. What is a key early nursing priority?
ARestricting oral fluids
BGiving prompt, effective analgesia
CApplying cold packs to the painful areas
DDelaying pain relief until a diagnosis is confirmed
8.Clinical nursingHard
A patient starting a DOAC is taught about missed doses. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A"If I forget a dose, I'll take two the next day to catch up."
B"I will tell other doctors and my dentist I take an anticoagulant."
C"I will take it at the same time each day."
D"I will report any blood in my urine."
9.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
Which treatment lowers serum potassium by moving it into the cells?
AOral potassium chloride supplements
BIV regular insulin given with glucose
CIV calcium gluconate given over 10 minutes
DIV 0.45% sodium chloride infusion
10.Lab values & electrolytesHard
The nurse teaches a patient with thrombocytopenia (platelets 25 × 10³/µL) about home safety. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A"I'll use a soft-bristled toothbrush"
B"I'll take aspirin if I get a headache"
C"I'll blow my nose gently, not forcefully"
D"I'll use an electric razor to shave"
11.PharmacologyMedium
A man taking tamsulosin is planning cataract surgery. What should the nurse advise?
ATell the eye surgeon, as it can cause floppy iris syndrome
BStop the drug for one day and no further action is needed
CTake a double dose on the day of surgery
DThe drug has no link with eye surgery
12.PharmacologyHard
The clearance of a drug falls to half because of kidney failure, while its volume of distribution stays the same. What happens to its half-life?
AIt stays the same
BIt halves
CIt increases fourfold
DIt doubles
13.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryMedium
A patient's blood pressure is 120/60 mmHg. What is the approximate mean arterial pressure?
A60 mmHg
B100 mmHg
C90 mmHg
D80 mmHg
14.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratoryHard
Minutes after an IV antibiotic is started, a patient has wheeze, swollen lips, a rash and BP 78/44 mmHg. The infusion has been stopped and help called. What is the next priority?
ARestart the infusion at a slower rate
BGive a nebulised salbutamol dose only
CGive intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine)
DGive an oral antihistamine tablet and observe for an hour
15.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalMedium
A patient has just started haemodialysis. What usually happens to their protein needs?
AThey increase, because dialysis removes amino acids
BThey fall to almost zero to rest the kidneys
CProtein must be replaced only by IV infusion
DThey stay exactly the same as they were before dialysis
16.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renalHard
The nurse has four neurology patients. Which one needs to be seen first?
AA patient with a headache after a lumbar puncture this morning
BA patient with multiple sclerosis who is tired after physiotherapy
CA patient with Guillain–Barré syndrome whose vital capacity is falling
DA patient with Parkinson's disease whose next dose is due in one hour
17.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyMedium
What is the purpose of the lockout interval on a PCA pump?
AIt locks the pump so the syringe cannot be changed
BIt makes the patient wait a day between large doses
CIt stops a new dose before the last one has worked
DIt stops the patient from getting any doses at night
18.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncologyHard
During radiotherapy to the chest, a patient develops pain on swallowing and is eating less. What is the most likely cause and nursing focus?
ANormal ageing; no action needed
BRadiation oesophagitis; analgesia, soft food and nutrition support
CA heart attack; give aspirin and arrange an ECG
DA stomach ulcer; give an antacid after meals only
19.Maternity & obstetric nursingMedium
During birth the baby's head is delivered but the shoulders are stuck. Which first manoeuvre is standard?
AFirm pressure on the fundus
BMcRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure
CPulling hard on the baby's head
DPushing the head back into the vagina as a first step
20.Maternity & obstetric nursingHard
A woman with gestational diabetes on insulin asks about her baby after birth. Which statement by the nurse is accurate?
AThe baby will be born with diabetes
BThe baby will need insulin for the first days
CThe baby's glucose will be checked for hypoglycaemia
DThe baby must not be breastfed in the first week
21.Pediatric nursingMedium
Which statement reflects current guidance about introducing allergenic foods, such as egg and peanut, to infants?
AThey should only be given after a skin prick test in every infant
BThey should be given from 6 weeks, mixed into the baby's milk
CThey should be avoided until at least 3 years of age, because early contact is what causes most food allergies
DThey can be introduced from around 6 months as part of solids, and delaying them does not prevent allergy
22.Pediatric nursingHard
The nurse has taught the family of a 7-year-old with coeliac disease. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A"We will use a separate toaster for his gluten-free bread."
B"We will check food labels for wheat, barley and rye."
C"He can eat normal bread at weekends if he's strict in the week."
D"Plain rice and potatoes are fine for him."
23.Mental health nursingMedium
In a therapy group, one member talks constantly and interrupts others. What should the group leader do?
ALet the member continue, because she has a lot to say
BAcknowledge the member's contribution and invite others to share their views
CAsk the member to leave the group permanently so that others can speak
DCriticise the member in front of the whole group so that she learns to stay quiet
24.Mental health nursingHard
On the fourth day after giving birth, a mother is tearful and moody but is caring for her baby, eating and sleeping when she can. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
AArrange an emergency psychiatric admission today
BTell her that antidepressants must be started at once
CExplain that these "baby blues" are common, offer support and advise her to seek help if they last more than about 2 weeks
DAdvise her to stop breastfeeding and let others feed the baby at night so that she can rest and recover
25.Nursing math & unit conversionsMedium
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A dose is charted at 15:15 (24-hour clock). Which entry is the same time on the 12-hour clock? Click it.
15:15
15:15 PM
22:15 PM
33:15 AM
43:15 PM
26.Nursing math & unit conversionsHard
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). During a shift a patient takes 3 cups of tea, ½ fl oz of juice, 2½ tsp of cough syrup. Using the equivalents given, find the total oral intake V in mL.
1 cup = 8 fl oz = 240 mL1 fl oz = 30 mL1 tsp = 5 mL
V = mL
27.Dosage calculationsMedium
An ampoule of epinephrine (adrenaline) is labelled 1:1000 (1 mg/mL). The prescription is 0.1 mg IM for anaphylaxis. What volume V do you draw up?
1:10000.1 mg
V = mL
28.Dosage calculationsHard
The prescription is 1640 micrograms. The ampoule contains 2 mg/mL. Draw up the dose in the 1 mL syringe: what volume V do you give?
1640 mcg2 mg/mL
V = mL
29.IV infusion ratesMedium
500 mL was ordered over 8 hours. After 4 hours you find that 310 mL is still in the bag, and the order must still finish on time. To what rate R in mL/h must the pump be reset?
500 mL / 8 hafter 4 h: 310 mL
R = mL/h
30.IV infusion ratesHard
A drip runs at 28 gtt/min through a set of 15 gtt/mL. There are 400 mL left in the bag. How many hours t until it is empty? Round to one decimal place.
28 gtt/min15 gtt/mL400 mL
t = h
31.Pediatric & critical-care dosingMedium
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A practice protocol calls for a heparin bolus of 70 units/kg for a patient who weighs 64 kg. The vial contains 1 000 units/mL. What volume V do you draw up? Round to one decimal place.
70 units/kg64 kg1 000 units/mL
V = mL
32.Pediatric & critical-care dosingHard
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A patient who weighs 58 kg has an order for norepinephrine at 4 mcg/min. The bag contains 4 mg in 250 mL. Find the pump rate R in mL/h. Round to one decimal place.
4 mg/250 mL4 mcg/min58 kg
R = mL/h
33.IV fluids & fluid balanceMedium
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). The record shows a patient's intake and output for one 12-hour shift. The IV infusion ran at the rate shown for the whole shift. Find the total intake I in mL.
juice: 100 mLmilk: 240 mLsoup: 150 mLIV infusion: 80 mL/h × 12 hIV antibiotic: 2 × 100 mL
I = mL
34.IV fluids & fluid balanceHard
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A 1000 mL bag was started at 11:45 and runs by pump at 60 mL/h. How many mL V are left in the bag at 13:45?
1000 mL60 mL/h11:45 → 13:45
V = mL
35.Clinical assessment scoresMedium
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A practice patient is assessed with the Braden scale: sensory perception: no impairment; moisture: constantly moist; activity: bedfast; mobility: very limited; nutrition: adequate; friction and shear: potential problem. Find the Braden total B.
6–23
B =
36.Clinical assessment scoresHard
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A practice patient is assessed with the Braden scale: sensory perception: very limited; moisture: constantly moist; activity: bedfast; mobility: completely immobile; nutrition: very poor; friction and shear: potential problem. Use the bands 19–23 not at risk, 15–18 mild, 13–14 moderate, 10–12 high and 9 or below very high. Click the risk level.
1not at risk
2mild risk
3moderate risk
4high risk
5very high risk
37.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.25, PaCO₂ 28 mmHg (3.7 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 12 mmol/L. The primary disorder is metabolic acidosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.
pH 7.25PaCO₂ 28 mmHg (3.7 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 12 mmol/L
1uncompensated
2partially compensated
3fully compensated
38.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
A practice gas shows a respiratory acidosis: pH 7.26, PaCO₂ 72 mmHg (9.6 kPa), HCO₃⁻ 31 mmol/L. Use the rules ‘HCO₃⁻ rises 1 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (acute) or 3.5 mmol/L per 10 mmHg (chronic)’ to classify it. Click your answer.
pH 7.26PaCO₂ 72 mmHg (9.6 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 31 mmol/L
1acute
2chronic
3acute on chronic
39.ECG rhythm strip interpretationMedium
Measure the QT interval and the R–R interval on this regular lead II strip, then calculate the rate-corrected QTc with Bazett’s formula QTc = QT/√RR (both in seconds). Give the answer in seconds to three decimals.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
QTc = s
40.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
This patient has a pacemaker. Interpret the lead II strip. Click your answer.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1junctional rhythm
2idioventricular rhythm
3third-degree (complete) AV block
4dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
3Solutions
1.Nursing fundamentals
Answer: B · A patient with reduced sensation from diabetic neuropathy
Why this is the answer
Patients who cannot feel heat properly, such as those with neuropathy, spinal injury or reduced consciousness, can be burned without noticing. Their skin needs extra checks or heat should be avoided.
Answer
B · A patient with reduced sensation from diabetic neuropathy
2.Nursing fundamentals
Answer: C · Keep taking basal insulin and check glucose and ketones more often
Why this is the answer
Sick-day rules say people with type 1 diabetes should never stop their insulin, as illness increases glucose and the risk of ketoacidosis. Frequent testing and early advice are needed.
Answer
C · Keep taking basal insulin and check glucose and ketones more often
3.Infection control & patient safety
Answer: B · From the sampling port, after cleaning it, using aseptic technique
Why this is the answer
Urine in the bag is old and may contain extra bacteria, and disconnecting the system lets organisms in. The sample is taken from the sampling port with a sterile syringe after disinfecting the port.
Answer
B · From the sampling port, after cleaning it, using aseptic technique
4.Infection control & patient safety
Answer: C · Loosen that restraint and assess the hand’s circulation
Why this is the answer
Signs of poor circulation distal to a restraint require immediate release and assessment. The restraint is then reapplied correctly only if still needed, with the two-finger check, and the findings are reported and documented.
Answer
C · Loosen that restraint and assess the hand’s circulation
5.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · Give IV dextrose or glucagon as prescribed
Why this is the answer
An unconscious patient must not be given anything by mouth because of aspiration risk. IV dextrose or glucagon raises the glucose quickly.
Answer
A · Give IV dextrose or glucagon as prescribed
6.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: B · An infection, such as a urinary tract infection, presenting atypically
Why this is the answer
Older adults often present with confusion or falls rather than fever when they have an infection. New confusion is a change that needs assessment for causes such as infection, dehydration or medication.
Answer
B · An infection, such as a urinary tract infection, presenting atypically
7.Clinical nursing
Answer: B · Giving prompt, effective analgesia
Why this is the answer
A sickle cell crisis needs rapid analgesia, often opioids, within a short target time, plus hydration, oxygen if hypoxic, warmth and monitoring for complications. Cold can trigger more sickling.
Answer
B · Giving prompt, effective analgesia
8.Clinical nursing
Answer: A · "If I forget a dose, I'll take two the next day to catch up."
Why this is the answer
Doubling up on an anticoagulant increases the bleeding risk. Patients follow the specific missed-dose advice for their drug and never take a double dose.
Answer
A · "If I forget a dose, I'll take two the next day to catch up."
9.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: B · IV regular insulin given with glucose
Why this is the answer
Insulin activates the sodium–potassium pump and moves potassium into the cells; glucose is given with it to prevent hypoglycemia. Calcium gluconate protects the heart but does not lower the potassium level.
Answer
B · IV regular insulin given with glucose
10.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: B · "I'll take aspirin if I get a headache"
Why this is the answer
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet function and raises the bleeding risk further in thrombocytopenia, so it and other NSAIDs are avoided unless prescribed. An electric razor, gentle nose blowing and a soft toothbrush reduce minor bleeding.
Answer
B · "I'll take aspirin if I get a headache"
11.Pharmacology
Answer: A · Tell the eye surgeon, as it can cause floppy iris syndrome
Why this is the answer
Tamsulosin can cause intraoperative floppy iris syndrome, which complicates cataract surgery. The surgeon needs to know so that the technique can be adapted.
Answer
A · Tell the eye surgeon, as it can cause floppy iris syndrome
12.Pharmacology
Answer: D · It doubles
Why this is the answer
Half-life is proportional to Vd and inversely proportional to clearance. Halving clearance doubles the half-life, so the drug accumulates and takes longer to reach steady state.
Answer
D · It doubles
13.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: D · 80 mmHg
Why this is the answer
MAP ≈ diastolic + (systolic − diastolic) ÷ 3 = 60 + 60 ÷ 3 = 80 mmHg. The heart spends longer in diastole, so MAP is closer to the diastolic value. A MAP of at least about 65 mmHg is a common target for organ perfusion.
Answer
D · 80 mmHg
14.Med-surg: cardiovascular & respiratory
Answer: C · Give intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine)
Why this is the answer
Anaphylaxis is treated first with intramuscular adrenaline into the anterolateral thigh, repeated after about 5 minutes if needed. It reverses bronchospasm, vasodilation and swelling. Oxygen, IV fluids and lying the patient flat (or sitting if breathing is easier) follow. Antihistamines and steroids are not first-line.
Answer
C · Give intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine)
15.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: A · They increase, because dialysis removes amino acids
Why this is the answer
Before dialysis, a moderate protein intake may be advised. Dialysis removes amino acids and protein, so needs rise, and malnutrition is a common risk. A renal dietitian sets individual targets.
Answer
A · They increase, because dialysis removes amino acids
16.Med-surg: neuro, endocrine & renal
Answer: C · A patient with Guillain–Barré syndrome whose vital capacity is falling
Why this is the answer
A falling vital capacity and weak cough in Guillain–Barré syndrome warn of respiratory failure, which may need ventilation. The other patients have expected or less urgent problems.
Answer
C · A patient with Guillain–Barré syndrome whose vital capacity is falling
17.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: C · It stops a new dose before the last one has worked
Why this is the answer
After each bolus, the pump ignores further presses for a set time (often 5–10 minutes) so the dose can take effect. This, together with dose limits, reduces the risk of overdose.
Answer
C · It stops a new dose before the last one has worked
18.Med-surg: GI, perioperative & oncology
Answer: B · Radiation oesophagitis; analgesia, soft food and nutrition support
Why this is the answer
Radiotherapy to the chest can inflame the oesophagus, causing painful swallowing. Analgesia (sometimes before meals), soft moist food, nutritional supplements, dietitian input and monitoring weight are important.
Answer
B · Radiation oesophagitis; analgesia, soft food and nutrition support
19.Maternity & obstetric nursing
Answer: B · McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure
Why this is the answer
For shoulder dystocia, call for help, flex the woman's thighs sharply onto her abdomen (McRoberts) and apply suprapubic, not fundal, pressure. Fundal pressure and strong traction on the head can worsen the impaction and injure the baby.
Answer
B · McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure
20.Maternity & obstetric nursing
Answer: C · The baby's glucose will be checked for hypoglycaemia
Why this is the answer
Babies of mothers with diabetes may have high insulin levels after birth, causing hypoglycaemia. Early, frequent feeding, often skin-to-skin, and glucose monitoring per protocol are standard.
Answer
C · The baby's glucose will be checked for hypoglycaemia
21.Pediatric nursing
Answer: D · They can be introduced from around 6 months as part of solids, and delaying them does not prevent allergy
Why this is the answer
Delaying common allergens does not prevent allergy, and early introduction may reduce the risk of peanut allergy. Peanut is given as smooth butter or powder, never whole nuts; infants with severe eczema or known food allergy may need specialist advice first.
Answer
D · They can be introduced from around 6 months as part of solids, and delaying them does not prevent allergy
22.Pediatric nursing
Answer: C · "He can eat normal bread at weekends if he's strict in the week."
Why this is the answer
Even small amounts of gluten damage the gut lining in coeliac disease, so the diet must be strict and lifelong. Avoiding cross-contamination, reading labels and using naturally gluten-free foods are correct.
Answer
C · "He can eat normal bread at weekends if he's strict in the week."
23.Mental health nursing
Answer: B · Acknowledge the member's contribution and invite others to share their views
Why this is the answer
The leader manages a monopolising member by acknowledging her and redirecting to others, and may discuss it privately. This keeps the group safe and gives everyone a chance to take part.
Answer
B · Acknowledge the member's contribution and invite others to share their views
24.Mental health nursing
Answer: C · Explain that these "baby blues" are common, offer support and advise her to seek help if they last more than about 2 weeks
Why this is the answer
Baby blues are common in the first days after birth and usually resolve within 2 weeks. Symptoms that last longer or are severe may indicate postpartum depression and need assessment.
Answer
C · Explain that these "baby blues" are common, offer support and advise her to seek help if they last more than about 2 weeks
25.Nursing math & unit conversions
Answer: 3:15 PM
24-hour clock: from 1 PM onwards add 12 to the hour (3:45 PM = 15:45). Midnight to 12:59 AM is 00:00–00:59, and 12:00–12:59 PM stays 12:00–12:59. Going back, subtract 12 from hours 13–23 and add PM; hours 00 become 12 AM. Count time across midnight in two parts: up to 24:00 (00:00), then from 00:00 on.
Convert the hour
15 − 12 = 3 → PM
Answer
3:15 PM
Answer
3:15 PM
26.Nursing math & unit conversions
Answer: V = 747.5 mL
Household measures and weight: nursing exams use rounded equivalents: 1 teaspoon (tsp) = 5 mL, 1 tablespoon (tbsp) = 15 mL = 3 tsp, 1 fluid ounce (fl oz) = 30 mL = 2 tbsp, and 1 cup = 8 fl oz = 240 mL. For weight, 1 kg = 2.2 lb and 1 lb = 16 oz; for length, 1 inch = 2.54 cm. Set the conversion up so that the unit you do not want cancels out.
Each item in mL
3 cups = 3·240 = 720 mL
½ fl oz = 0.5·30 = 15 mL
2½ tsp = 2.5·5 = 12.5 mL
Add
V = 720 + 15 + 12.5 = 747.5 mL
Answer
V = 747.5 mL
27.Dosage calculations
Answer: V = 0.1 mL
Solution strengths: a percentage strength is grams per 100 mL, so 1% = 1 g/100 mL = 10 mg/mL. A ratio strength 1:1000 means 1 g in 1000 mL = 1 mg/mL; 1:10 000 is 0.1 mg/mL. For a dilution the amount of drug stays the same: C₁·V₁ = C₂·V₂.
Concentration
1:1000 = 1 g/1000 mL = 1 mg/mL
Volume
V = 0.1/1 = 0.1 mL
Answer
V = 0.1 mL
US labels now state mg/mL (1 mg/mL = 1:1000; 0.1 mg/mL = 1:10 000). Never give 1 mg/mL epinephrine IV push.
28.Dosage calculations
Answer: V = 0.82 mL
Drawing up a dose: volume = (prescribed dose/stock strength) × stock volume. Convert to the same units first, then check that the volume fits the syringe and lands on one of its graduations.
Same units
2 mg/mL = 2000 mcg/mL
Volume
V = 1640/2000 = 0.82 mL
Answer
V = 0.82 mL
29.IV infusion rates
Answer: R = 77.5 mL/h
Infusion rates: a pump is set in mL/h = volume/time in hours. A gravity drip is counted in drops per minute: gtt/min = volume (mL) × drop factor (gtt/mL)/time (min). The drop factor is printed on the tubing package: macrodrip sets deliver 10, 15 or 20 gtt/mL (blood sets often 10 gtt/mL in the US, 15 in the UK) and microdrip sets 60 gtt/mL. Always use the drop factor the question or package gives.
Original rate
500/8 = 62.5 mL/h
New rate
R = 310/4 = 77.5 mL/h
Answer
R = 77.5 mL/h
Many hospitals allow such an adjustment up to 25% without a new order; check local policy.
30.IV infusion rates
Answer: t = 3.6 h
Infusion rates: a pump is set in mL/h = volume/time in hours. A gravity drip is counted in drops per minute: gtt/min = volume (mL) × drop factor (gtt/mL)/time (min). The drop factor is printed on the tubing package: macrodrip sets deliver 10, 15 or 20 gtt/mL (blood sets often 10 gtt/mL in the US, 15 in the UK) and microdrip sets 60 gtt/mL. Always use the drop factor the question or package gives.
Rate in mL/h
28·60/15 = 112 mL/h
Time left
t = 400/112 = 3.571 ≈ 3.6 h
Answer
t = 3.6 h
31.Pediatric & critical-care dosing
Answer: V = 4.5 mL
Heparin and insulin infusions: concentration = units in the bag/bag volume (units/mL). Pump rate (mL/h) = units per hour/concentration, and units per hour = mL/h × concentration. For a weight-based order, units/h = units/kg/h × weight first. A bolus volume = units needed/vial strength. The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.
Units needed
70·64 = 4 480 units
Volume
V = 4480/1000 = 4.48 ≈ 4.5 mL
Answer
V = 4.5 mL
32.Pediatric & critical-care dosing
Answer: R = 15 mL/h
Titrated drips: first find the concentration in mcg/mL (mg × 1000/mL). For a weight-based order, mcg/min = mcg/kg/min × weight. Then mL/h = mcg/min × 60/concentration. Working backwards, mcg/kg/min = mL/h × concentration/(60 × weight). The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.
Concentration
4 000/250 = 16 mcg/mL
Dose per hour
The order is per minute for the whole patient, so the weight is not needed.
4·60 = 240 mcg/h
Pump rate
R = 240/16 = 15 mL/h
Answer
R = 15 mL/h
33.IV fluids & fluid balance
Answer: I = 1650 mL
Intake and output: intake counts everything that goes in (oral fluids, IV infusions, IV medications and flushes, tube feeds); ice chips count as half their volume. Output counts urine, drains, vomit and other losses. Balance = total intake − total output; a negative balance is a net loss. The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.
Add the intake
oral: 100 + 240 + 150 = 490 mL
IV infusion: 80·12 = 960 mL
IV antibiotic: 2·100 = 200 mL
I = 1650 mL
Answer
I = 1650 mL
34.IV fluids & fluid balance
Answer: V = 880 mL
Infusion time: time (h) = volume to infuse (mL)/rate (mL/h); use the volume still left in the bag, not the bag size. Volume infused = rate × time. Convert decimal hours to hours and minutes with the fraction × 60 (0.5 h = 30 min, not 50 min). The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.
Elapsed time
11:45 → 13:45 = 2 h
Volume infused
60·2 = 120 mL
Volume left
V = 1000 − 120 = 880 mL
Answer
V = 880 mL
35.Clinical assessment scores
Answer: B = 13
Braden scale: six subscales for pressure-injury risk. Sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility and nutrition score 1 to 4, from the worst level (1) to no problem (4); friction and shear scores 1 to 3. The total runs from 6 to 23, and a lower total means a higher risk. Common bands: 19–23 not at risk, 15–18 mild risk, 13–14 moderate risk, 10–12 high risk and 9 or below very high risk.
Score each subscale
sensory perception: no impairment → 4
moisture: constantly moist → 1
activity: bedfast → 1
mobility: very limited → 2
nutrition: adequate → 3
friction and shear: potential problem → 2
Add
Braden total = 4 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 13
Answer
B = 13
36.Clinical assessment scores
Answer: very high risk
Braden scale: six subscales for pressure-injury risk. Sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility and nutrition score 1 to 4, from the worst level (1) to no problem (4); friction and shear scores 1 to 3. The total runs from 6 to 23, and a lower total means a higher risk. Common bands: 19–23 not at risk, 15–18 mild risk, 13–14 moderate risk, 10–12 high risk and 9 or below very high risk.
Score each subscale
sensory perception: very limited → 2
moisture: constantly moist → 1
activity: bedfast → 1
mobility: completely immobile → 1
nutrition: very poor → 1
friction and shear: potential problem → 2
Add
Braden total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 8
Risk level
8 → very high risk
Answer
very high risk
37.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: partially compensated
Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.
ROME, value by value
pH 7.25: acidaemia (below 7.35)
PaCO₂ 28 mmHg: low (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 12 mmol/L: low (22–26)
Compensation
partially compensated
Answer
partially compensated
38.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: acute on chronic
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Expected HCO₃⁻
acute: 24 + 1·3.2 = 27.2 mmol/L
chronic: 24 + 3.5·3.2 = 35.2 mmol/L
Compare
measured: 31 mmol/L → acute on chronic
Answer
acute on chronic
39.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: QTc = 0.5 s
QT and QTc: the QT interval runs from the start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. It shortens as the heart rate rises, so it is corrected for rate with the R–R interval in seconds: Bazett QTc = QT/√RR and Fridericia QTc = QT/∛RR. Bazett is the formula most textbooks use; it over-corrects at fast rates, where Fridericia is preferred. Limits differ between references: a QTc above about 0.45 s in men or 0.46 s in women is usually called prolonged, and above 0.50 s markedly prolonged.
Measure
QT = 10 × 0.04 = 0.40 s
RR = 16 × 0.04 = 0.64 s
Bazett’s formula
QTc = 0.40/√0.64 = 0.40/0.8 = 0.5 s
Answer
QTc = 0.5 s
Above the usual limits for both men (about 0.45 s) and women (about 0.46 s): prolonged. (500 ms)
40.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
Paced rhythms: a pacemaker impulse shows as a narrow vertical pacing spike. After a ventricular spike the QRS is wide (0.12 s or more), because the impulse spreads from the lead through the muscle instead of the conduction system; with right-ventricular pacing it is often mostly negative in lead II. A spike before each P wave means atrial pacing, and a dual-chamber (AV) pacemaker shows an atrial spike and a P wave, then, after the programmed AV delay, a ventricular spike and a wide QRS. Capture means every spike is followed by a depolarisation. Failure to capture is a spike without a P wave or QRS after it; failure to sense (spikes that ignore the patient’s own beats) and failure to pace (no spike when one is due) are the other classic malfunctions.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 23 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 23 ≈ 65 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.92 s.
3. P waves: each P wave follows its own pacing spike (atrial pacing).
4. AV interval: the second spike comes 0.18 s after the first one (the programmed AV delay).
5. QRS: 0.16 s, wide, right after the second spike (ventricular pacing).
Interpretation
dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
Answer
dual-chamber (AV) paced rhythm
The paced QRS is wide by nature; do not call it a bundle branch block or a ventricular rhythm.