Read the pH: below 7.35 is acidosis, above 7.45 alkalosis.
Find the value that explains it: PaCO₂ moving opposite to the pH is respiratory, HCO₃⁻ moving with the pH is metabolic.
Look at the other value: normal means uncompensated, abnormal in the compensating direction means partial compensation, and a normal pH with both abnormal means full compensation.
In a metabolic acidosis, compare PaCO₂ with Winter’s formula, 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2, and calculate the anion gap Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻).
Check a high anion gap with the delta ratio and, when albumin is low, with the corrected gap.
Write down what is asked: a pump rate, a volume, kilocalories, grams of protein or water.
Turn energy into volume with mL = kcal/(kcal/mL), and volume into protein with litres × g/L.
Divide by the hours the feed actually runs for a rate, or by the number of feeds for a bolus.
For needs, multiply kcal/kg or g/kg by the weight the rule names; find the ideal body weight with Devine: 50 or 45.5 + 2.3 × (inches − 60).
For PN, find grams as % × mL/100, then use 3.4 kcal/g for dextrose, 4 kcal/g for amino acids and the stated kcal/mL for lipid.
ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Paper (25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV)
1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 s, 10 mm = 1 mV
Heart rate, regular rhythm
300 ÷ large boxes = 1500 ÷ small boxes = 60 ÷ RR (s)
Heart rate, irregular rhythm
QRS complexes in 6 s × 10
Normal PR interval
0.12–0.20 s
Normal QRS duration
< 0.12 s
QTc (Bazett)
QT/√RR
QTc (Fridericia)
QT/∛RR
QTc (Framingham)
QT + 154·(1 − RR)
Sinus rates
bradycardia < 60, normal 60–100, tachycardia > 100 /min
Escape rates
junctional 40–60, ventricular 20–40 /min
Fast rhythms
SVT 150–250 /min (narrow), VT > 100 /min (wide)
Method
Rate: for a regular rhythm divide 300 by the large boxes or 1500 by the small boxes between two R waves; for an irregular rhythm count the QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Rhythm: compare the R–R intervals. Equal is regular; a repeating pattern is regularly irregular; no pattern at all is irregularly irregular.
P waves: is there an upright P wave in lead II before every QRS, all alike? Look for fibrillatory or sawtooth waves, inverted P waves and P waves without a QRS.
PR interval: from the start of P to the start of the QRS, normally 0.12–0.20 s and constant. Watch whether it lengthens, stays fixed before a dropped beat, or varies at random.
QRS duration: below 0.12 s is narrow; 0.12 s or more is wide. Then name the rhythm, and for the QT use QTc = QT/√RR (Bazett) with times in seconds.
Prioritization & delegation
Method
Ask what will harm the patient soonest if nothing is done.
Apply ABC (C-A-B in cardiac arrest), then Maslow: physiological needs before safety, safety before psychological needs.
Compare the options: acute before chronic, unstable before stable, unexpected before expected, systemic before local, and check each finding against the patient’s baseline.
Assess before you act unless it is an emergency; then choose the step the others depend on.
For delegation, check the five rights: task, circumstance, person, directions and supervision. Assessment, teaching and evaluation stay with the RN.
Infection control & patient safety
Method
Start with standard precautions for every patient: hand hygiene, PPE for the expected exposure, safe sharps.
Keep sterile items sterile: if in doubt, it is not sterile; replace, never wipe.
Prevent harm in the environment: fall measures, restraints only as a last resort, RACE and PASS for fire.
Check the rights of medication administration, two identifiers and extra safeguards for high-alert drugs; report errors and near misses.
Lab values & electrolytes
Method
Compare the value with the laboratory’s own reference range, then with the patient’s baseline and trend.
Check the sample: hemolysis, a delay, or blood drawn near an IV can give false results.
Link the value to its typical signs and to the drugs and conditions that cause it.
Look for interactions: low potassium or magnesium increases digoxin toxicity; dehydration raises lithium.
Act on the patient: assess, hold a drug if the level is unsafe, read back critical values and inform the prescriber.
2Practice problems
1.Nursing fundamentalsMedium
A patient with capacity wants to leave hospital against medical advice. What should the nurse do?
AHide the patient's clothes so they cannot leave
BLet them go without telling anyone
CLock the ward door to keep the patient in until the doctor arrives
DExplain the risks, inform the doctor and document the discussion
2.Nursing fundamentalsHard
On the sacrum there is a shallow open area with a pink wound bed and no slough. How is this pressure ulcer classified?
ACategory 1
BCategory 4
CCategory 2
DCategory 3
3.Clinical nursingMedium
Long-term amiodarone treatment can affect which of the following?
AThe sense of smell and taste only, with no other effects
BThyroid function, the lungs and the skin's sensitivity to sunlight
CHair colour and nail growth only, with no effect on organs
DBlood glucose and cholesterol only
4.Clinical nursingHard
A patient after abdominal surgery has not passed urine for eight hours, has lower abdominal discomfort and a palpable bladder. What is the most likely problem?
AAcute urinary retention
BUrinary tract infection without retention
CDehydration only
DAcute kidney injury with no urine production
5.Arterial blood gas interpretationMedium
A practice arterial blood gas shows pH 7.51, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg (6.7 kPa) and HCO₃⁻ 39 mmol/L. The primary disorder is metabolic alkalosis. How far is it compensated? Click your answer.
pH 7.51PaCO₂ 50 mmHg (6.7 kPa)HCO₃⁻ 39 mmol/L
1uncompensated
2partially compensated
3fully compensated
6.Arterial blood gas interpretationHard
Practice values: Na⁺ 135, Cl⁻ 98, HCO₃⁻ 18 mmol/L and albumin 27 g/L. Find the albumin-corrected anion gap AGc = AG + 0.25·(40 − albumin).
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A practice chart records GCS 8, with E2 and V3. What motor score M was recorded, and which response does it describe? Give the number.
GCS 8E2V3
M =
8.Clinical assessment scoresHard
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). Use the NEWS2 chart (SpO₂ scale 1) for these observations: respiration rate 14/min, SpO₂ 97% on room air, blood pressure 106/64 mmHg, pulse 38/min, alert, temperature 37.7 °C. Which clinical risk group does the patient fall into? Click it.
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A 75 kg patient has a fluid goal of 30 mL/kg/day and receives all fluid through a feeding tube. The formula is 70% free water and runs at 55 mL/h for 20 hours a day. The rest of the fluid is given as water flushes every 4 hours. What volume V is each flush? Round to the nearest whole number.
Practice exercise (made-up values, not clinical guidance). A critically ill man is 170 cm tall and weighs 135 kg. The practice protocol gives 13 kcal/kg of actual body weight per day if the BMI is 30–50 kg/m², and 23 kcal/kg of ideal body weight (Devine) per day if the BMI is above 50 kg/m². Find the energy goal E in kcal/day. Round to the nearest whole number.
This lead II strip shows atrial flutter. How many flutter waves per QRS complex are there (the n of n:1 conduction)?
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
flutter waves per QRS =
12.ECG rhythm strip interpretationHard
Interpret this lead II strip with the five steps in order: rate, rhythm, P waves, PR interval, QRS duration. At which step do you find the first abnormal finding? Click it.
lead II, 25 mm/s, 10 mm/mV1 small box = 0.04 s, 1 large box = 0.20 sstrip length 6 s
1rate
2rhythm
3P waves
4PR interval
5QRS duration
13.Prioritization & delegationMedium
Which patient on an addiction unit should the nurse see first?
ALast drink this morning; asking when lunch will arrive
BIn recovery for a year; came to the clinic today for a routine check and a repeat prescription
CLast drink one week ago; asking about support groups
DLast drink two days ago; now shaking, sweating, heart rate 124/min and seeing insects
14.Prioritization & delegationHard
During START triage, a non-walking adult breathes 28 times a minute, has no radial pulse and has a capillary refill of 4 seconds. Which category is the victim given?
ARed (immediate)
BYellow (delayed), because the respiratory rate is under 30/min
CGreen (minor)
DBlack (expectant)
15.Infection control & patient safetyMedium
When is a prophylactic antibiotic usually given to prevent a surgical site infection?
AOne week before surgery
BOnly if a fever develops after surgery
CWithin about 60 minutes before the incision
DThe day after surgery, once the wound is closed
16.Infection control & patient safetyHard
A nurse teaches the daughter of a patient with moderate Alzheimer’s disease about home safety. Which statement shows a need for further teaching?
A“I keep her medicines locked away and give each dose to her myself.”
B“I let Mom cook alone on the gas stove because she enjoys it.”
C“She wears an ID bracelet in case she gets lost.”
D“We put locks high up on the outside doors.”
17.Lab values & electrolytesMedium
A patient with chronic kidney disease receives an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent such as epoetin alfa. Which assessments are most important?
ALiver enzymes and bilirubin
BSerum amylase and lipase
CSerum glucose and ketones
DHemoglobin and blood pressure
18.Lab values & electrolytesHard
A patient on lithium has had vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days and has been taking ibuprofen. They now have a coarse tremor and confusion. The lithium level is 2.2 mEq/L. What is the best interpretation and action?
AIbuprofen side effects only; give it with food
BA low level; ask for the lithium dose to be raised
CA normal level; continue lithium as prescribed
DLithium toxicity; hold lithium and report urgently
3Solutions
1.Nursing fundamentals
Answer: D · Explain the risks, inform the doctor and document the discussion
Why this is the answer
An adult with capacity can discharge themselves. The nurse explains the risks, involves the doctor, offers follow-up and documents the decision; detaining them would be unlawful.
Answer
D · Explain the risks, inform the doctor and document the discussion
2.Nursing fundamentals
Answer: C · Category 2
Why this is the answer
Category 2 (Stage 2 in the US NPIAP system) is partial-thickness skin loss, seen as a shallow open ulcer with a pink-red bed or as a blister. Category 1 is intact skin; categories 3 and 4 are full thickness.
Answer
C · Category 2
3.Clinical nursing
Answer: B · Thyroid function, the lungs and the skin's sensitivity to sunlight
Why this is the answer
Amiodarone can cause hypo- or hyperthyroidism, pulmonary fibrosis, liver problems and photosensitivity. Regular monitoring of thyroid and liver function is needed.
Answer
B · Thyroid function, the lungs and the skin's sensitivity to sunlight
4.Clinical nursing
Answer: A · Acute urinary retention
Why this is the answer
Anaesthesia, opioids and pain can cause retention. A bladder scan confirms residual volume; catheterisation is often needed.
Answer
A · Acute urinary retention
5.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: partially compensated
Reading a blood gas (ROME): first the pH: below 7.35 is acidaemia, above 7.45 alkalaemia. Then find the value that explains it. PaCO₂ (normal 35–45 mmHg, 4.7–6.0 kPa) is the respiratory part and moves Opposite to the pH in a respiratory disorder; HCO₃⁻ (normal 22–26 mmol/L) is the metabolic part and moves in the same direction as the pH (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal). The other value shows the compensation: normal means uncompensated; abnormal in the direction that pulls the pH back while the pH is still abnormal means partially compensated; a normal pH with both values abnormal means fully compensated. Ranges differ slightly between laboratories; these are practice values.
ROME, value by value
pH 7.51: alkalaemia (above 7.45)
PaCO₂ 50 mmHg: high (35–45)
HCO₃⁻ 39 mmol/L: high (22–26)
Compensation
partially compensated
Answer
partially compensated
6.Arterial blood gas interpretation
Answer: AGc = 22.25 mmol/L
Expected compensation: in metabolic acidosis Winter’s formula predicts PaCO₂ = 1.5·HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2 mmHg; a measured value above that range points to an additional respiratory acidosis, below it to an additional respiratory alkalosis. The anion gap AG = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻), normally about 8–12 mmol/L, separates high-gap from normal-gap metabolic acidosis; low albumin hides a high gap (add 2.5 per g/dL that albumin is below 4.0). The delta ratio (AG − 12)/(24 − HCO₃⁻) between about 0.8 and 2 fits a pure high-gap acidosis (some texts use 1 instead of 0.8), below that an added normal-gap acidosis, and above 2 an added metabolic alkalosis.
Anion gap
AG = 135 − (98 + 18) = 19
Correction for albumin
19 + 0.25·(40 − 27) = 22.25 mmol/L
Answer
AGc = 22.25 mmol/L
Above about 12 after correction: a high anion gap.
7.Clinical assessment scores
Answer: M = 3
Glasgow Coma Scale: add the best response in three areas. Eye opening E: 4 spontaneous, 3 to sound or speech, 2 to pressure, 1 none. Verbal V: 5 oriented, 4 confused, 3 inappropriate words, 2 incomprehensible sounds, 1 none. Motor M: 6 obeys commands, 5 localises, 4 normal flexion (withdraws), 3 abnormal flexion, 2 extension, 1 none. The total runs from 3 to 15. After a head injury, 13–15 is usually called mild, 9–12 moderate and 3–8 severe.
Motor score
M = 8 − 2 − 3 = 3
M3: abnormal flexion of the arms (decorticate posture)
Answer
M = 3
8.Clinical assessment scores
Answer: low–medium
NEWS2 (National Early Warning Score 2, Royal College of Physicians 2017): score each of the seven parameters with the chart (respiration rate, SpO₂ on scale 1, air or supplemental oxygen, systolic blood pressure, pulse, consciousness on the ACVPU scale and temperature) and add the scores. Clinical risk: 0–4 low; a score of 3 in any single parameter low–medium; 5–6 medium; 7 or more high. A total of 5 or more needs an urgent response.
Score each parameter
RR 14/min → 0
SpO₂ 97% → 0
on air → 0
SBP 106 mmHg → 1
HR 38/min → 3
alert (A) → 0
T 37.7 °C → 0
Total and red scores
NEWS2 = 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 + 3 + 0 + 0 = 4
At least one parameter scores 3.
Risk group
low–medium
Answer
low–medium
A single score of 3 needs an urgent review even when the total is low.
9.Enteral & parenteral nutrition calculations
Answer: V = 247 mL
Needs and free water: energy needs are often estimated as kcal/kg/day × weight and protein needs as g/kg/day × weight. A formula is only partly water, so its free water = volume × water fraction; water flushes make up the rest of the daily fluid goal. Ideal body weight (Devine): IBW = 50 kg + 2.3 kg for every inch over 5 feet (60 in) for men, and 45.5 kg + 2.3 kg per inch over 60 in for women; 1 in = 2.54 cm. The formula is meant for adults at least 152.4 cm (5 ft) tall. The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.
Fluid goal
30·75 = 2250 mL/day
Free water from the formula
55·20 = 1100 mL
1100·0.7 = 770 mL
Water still needed
2250 − 770 = 1480 mL/day
Volume per flush
24/4 = 6 flushes
V = 1480/6 = 246.7 ≈ 247 mL
Answer
V = 247 mL
10.Enteral & parenteral nutrition calculations
Answer: E = 1755 kcal/day
Ideal body weight (Devine): IBW = 50 kg + 2.3 kg for every inch over 5 feet (60 in) for men, and 45.5 kg + 2.3 kg per inch over 60 in for women; 1 in = 2.54 cm. The formula is meant for adults at least 152.4 cm (5 ft) tall. Obesity in critical illness (ASPEN/SCCM 2016): BMI = weight/height² (kg/m²). For BMI 30–50 the energy goal is 11–14 kcal/kg of actual body weight per day; above 50 it is 22–25 kcal/kg of ideal body weight per day. The numbers are for practice only; at the bedside always follow local protocols and have high-risk doses double-checked.
Body mass index
BMI = 135/1.7² = 46.71 kg/m²
Energy goal
BMI 30–50: kcal per kg of actual body weight.
E = 13·135 = 1755 kcal/day
Answer
E = 1755 kcal/day
11.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: flutter waves per QRS = 4
Rhythm criteria (lead II): sinus rhythm has an upright P wave before every QRS, a constant PR of 0.12–0.20 s and a narrow QRS: normal sinus rhythm at 60–100/min, sinus bradycardia below 60, sinus tachycardia above 100. Atrial fibrillation: no P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular R–R. Atrial flutter: sawtooth flutter waves at about 250–350/min with a fixed conduction ratio such as 2:1 or 4:1. First-degree AV block: sinus rhythm with a constant PR above 0.20 s. Junctional rhythm: narrow QRS at 40–60/min with absent or inverted P waves (PR below 0.12 s, or P after the QRS). A PVC is an early, wide (0.12 s or more), bizarre QRS without a P wave, with the T wave in the opposite direction and usually a full compensatory pause; in bigeminy every second beat is a PVC.
Flutter waves
F–F = 5 small boxes = 0.20 s → 1500 ÷ 5 = 300 per minute
QRS complexes
R–R = 20 small boxes = 0.80 s → 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 per minute
conduction ratio = 300 ÷ 75 = 4:1
Answer
flutter waves per QRS = 4
12.ECG rhythm strip interpretation
Answer: QRS duration
Five steps for every strip: 1. rate (300 or 1500 method, or the 6-second method if irregular); 2. rhythm: are the R–R intervals equal; 3. P waves: present, upright in lead II, one before every QRS and all alike; 4. PR interval: 0.12–0.20 s and constant; 5. QRS duration: below 0.12 s. Only after the five steps name the rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm passes all five: 60–100/min, regular, upright P before every QRS, PR 0.12–0.20 s, QRS below 0.12 s.
Five steps
1. Rate: R–R = 20 small boxes, 1500 ÷ 20 ≈ 75 per minute.
2. Rhythm: regular, every R–R is 0.80 s.
3. P waves: upright, one before every QRS, all alike.
4. PR interval: 0.16 s, constant, within 0.12–0.20 s.
5. QRS: 0.12 s, wide (0.12 s or more).
First abnormal step
QRS duration → sinus rhythm with wide QRS
Answer
QRS duration
13.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: D · Last drink two days ago; now shaking, sweating, heart rate 124/min and seeing insects
Why this is the answer
Hallucinations, tremor, sweating and tachycardia two to three days after the last drink suggest severe withdrawal and possible delirium tremens, which can be fatal. This patient needs prompt assessment and treatment.
Answer
D · Last drink two days ago; now shaking, sweating, heart rate 124/min and seeing insects
14.Prioritization & delegation
Answer: A · Red (immediate)
Why this is the answer
A rate under 30/min passes the breathing check, but an absent radial pulse or a capillary refill over 2 seconds fails the perfusion check, so the victim is immediate (red). Stopping after the breathing check is the trap.
Answer
A · Red (immediate)
15.Infection control & patient safety
Answer: C · Within about 60 minutes before the incision
Why this is the answer
For most drugs, prophylaxis is given within 60 minutes before the incision so tissue levels are high during surgery. Some drugs, such as vancomycin, start earlier because they are infused over longer.
Answer
C · Within about 60 minutes before the incision
16.Infection control & patient safety
Answer: B · “I let Mom cook alone on the gas stove because she enjoys it.”
Why this is the answer
People with moderate dementia may forget a lit stove, causing fires or burns. Cooking should be supervised, or stove knobs removed or controls disabled. The other statements show good safety planning.
Answer
B · “I let Mom cook alone on the gas stove because she enjoys it.”
17.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: D · Hemoglobin and blood pressure
Why this is the answer
Epoetin stimulates red cell production. Hemoglobin is monitored, because raising it too high increases the risk of hypertension, stroke and thrombosis. Blood pressure is monitored, and iron stores are checked, since iron is needed for a good response.
Answer
D · Hemoglobin and blood pressure
18.Lab values & electrolytes
Answer: D · Lithium toxicity; hold lithium and report urgently
Why this is the answer
A level of 2.2 mEq/L with coarse tremor and confusion is lithium toxicity. Fluid loss and NSAIDs both reduce lithium excretion by the kidneys. The dose is held, the provider is informed at once, and fluids and close monitoring are expected; severe cases may need dialysis.
Answer
D · Lithium toxicity; hold lithium and report urgently