Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

New problemsBack to the course

In the print window, choose “Save as PDF” to keep a copy on your device.

1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…9PV = ?€5 000

You need €5 000 in 9 years. An account pays 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €5 0003.6% / 12n = 9
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…348€200€200€200FV = ?

You save €200 at the end of every month for 29 years. The account pays 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.

A = €2003.6% / 12N = 348
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−100 00031 00031 00031 00041 000

A machine costs €100 000 today. It generates €31 000 at the end of each year for 4 years and can then be sold for €10 000. The cost of capital is 12%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €100 000CF = €31 000S = €10 000n = 4r = 12%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012345−200 00048 000+3%+3%+3%+3%r = 12%, NPV = ?

A project costs €200 000 today. Its cash flow is €48 000 at the end of year 1 and grows by 3% per year until the last cash flow at the end of year 5. The cost of capital is 12%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €200 000CF1 = €48 000g = 3%n = 5r = 12%
NPV = €
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium

You buy a bond with 3 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 5%) when its yield to maturity is 5.5%. One year later, just after receiving the first coupon, you sell it when the yield to maturity is 4.5%. Find your holding period return HPR in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 5%n = 3y0 = 5.5%y1 = 4.5%
HPR = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123…8€910€60€60 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 6% matures in 8 years and sells for €910. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 6%n = 8P = €910
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equityEre​ = 8%debtD = 0.25·Erd​ = 4%T = 25.8%

A company has a debt-to-equity ratio (at market values) of 0.25. Its cost of equity is 8%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC.

D/E = 0.25re = 8%rd = 4%T = 25.8%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
rf​ = 2.5%, rm​ − rf​ = 4.5%D/E = 0.2equityβL​ = 1.2debtD/E = 1equityre​ = ?debtT = 20%

A company's shares have a beta of 1.2 at its current debt-to-equity ratio of 0.2. It plans to raise its debt-to-equity ratio to 1. The tax rate is 20%, the risk-free rate 2.5% and the market risk premium 4.5%. Find the cost of equity re after the change.

βL = 1.2D/E1 = 0.2D/E2 = 1T = 20%rf = 2.5%rm − rf = 4.5%
re = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€ABQ = ?

A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €30 000 per year and a variable cost of €25 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €38 000 per year and a variable cost of €23 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?

FA = €30 000vA = €25FB = €38 000vB = €23
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €11 per unit, with a variable cost of €6 per unit and fixed costs of €5 000 per year. Budgeted sales are 1 400 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €5 000p = €11v = €6budget = 1 400
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 3618 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = 12·9 = 108

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 5 000/1.382 = €3 618.01

Answer

PV = €3 618.01
2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 122408 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly rate and number of deposits

i = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = 12·29 = 348

Future value of the deposits

FV = A·((1 + i)N − 1)/i = 200·(2.836 − 1)/0.003 = €122 408.04

Answer

FV = €122 408.04

You paid in €69 600 yourself; the rest is interest.

3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 513 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of the yearly cash flows

31 000·3.037 = 94 157.83

Present value of the salvage value

10 000/1.574 = 6 355.18

NPV

NPV = −100 000 + 94 157.83 + 6 355.18 = €513.01

Answer

NPV = €513.01
4.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −17495 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of the growing annuity

((1.03)/(1.12))5 = 0.6578
PV = 48 000/(0.12 − 0.03)·(1 − 0.6578) = 182 504.94

NPV

NPV = 182 504.94 − 200 000 = −€17 495.06

Answer

NPV = −€17 495.06

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: HPR = 7.385 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Purchase price

C = €50.00, i = 0.055, N = 3
€50.00·(1 − 0.8516)/0.055 + €1 000·0.8516 = €134.90 + €851.61 = €986.51

Selling price

C = €50.00, i = 0.045, N = 2
€50.00·(1 − 0.9157)/0.045 + €1 000·0.9157 = €93.63 + €915.73 = €1 009.36

Holding period return

HPR = (50 + 1 009.36 − 986.51)/986.51 = 7.385%

Answer

HPR = 7.385%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 7.539 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€910 = €60·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁸)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁸

Solve numerically

P(7%) = €940.29, P(8%) = €885.07
YTM = 7.539%

Answer

YTM = 7.539%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6.994 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights from D/E

E/V = 1/(1 + 0.25) = 0.8
D/V = 0.25/(1 + 0.25) = 0.2

WACC

WACC = 0.8·8% + 0.2·4%·(1 − 0.258) = 6.994%

Answer

WACC = 6.994%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: re = 10.88 %

Levered beta (Hamada): debt makes equity riskier. βL = βU·(1 + (1 − T)·D/E), where βU is the beta of the business without debt. To move a beta to another capital structure, unlever it first and then relever it at the new D/E.

Unlever the beta

βU = 1.2/(1 + 0.8·0.2) = 1.034

Relever at the new D/E

βL = 1.034·(1 + 0.8·1) = 1.862

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2.5% + 1.862·4.5% = 10.88%

Answer

re = 10.88%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 4000 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Equal total costs

30 000 + 25Q = 38 000 + 23Q

Solve for Q

Q = (38 000 − 30 000)/(25 − 23) = 4 000

Answer

Q = 4 000 units

Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.

10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 28.57 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 5 000/5 = 1 000

Margin of safety

MS = (1 400 − 1 000)/1 400·100 = 28.57%

Answer

MS = 28.57%

ExamProblems · examproblems.com/courses/corporate-finance