Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
periods0123…1211 + EAR = ?22% / 12

A credit card charges a nominal interest rate of 22% per year, compounded monthly. Find the effective annual rate EAR in percent.

r = 22%m = 12
EAR = %
2.Time value of moneyHard
years012345€5 000€5 000€5 000FV = ?

You deposit €5 000 at the start of every year for 5 years, the first deposit today. The account pays 7% per year. How much is in the account at the end of year 5? Find FV.

A = €5 000i = 7%n = 5
FV = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123−75 00016 00028 00015 000

An investment of €75 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €16 000, €28 000, €15 000. The cost of capital is 9%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 9%CF0 = −75 000CF1 = 16 000CF2 = 28 000CF3 = 15 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−40 00020 00022 50029 000

A project costs €40 000 and returns €20 000, €22 500, €29 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −40 000CF1 = 20 000CF2 = 22 500CF3 = 29 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium

You buy a bond with 5 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 2%) when its yield to maturity is 5%. One year later, just after receiving the first coupon, you sell it when the yield to maturity is 4.5%. Find your holding period return HPR in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 2%n = 5y0 = 5%y1 = 4.5%
HPR = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years01234567€1 135€30€30 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 3% matures in 7 years and sells for €1 135. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 3%n = 7P = €1 135
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€6 000 000re​ = 13%debt€6 000 000rd​ = 3.5%T = 30%

A company has equity worth €6 000 000 and debt worth €6 000 000. Its cost of equity is 13%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3.5% and the tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC.

E = €6 000 000D = €6 000 000re = 13%rd = 3.5%T = 30%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity2 000 000 × €10.00β = 0.6rf​ = 2%, rm​ = 8%debt5 000 × €960rd​ = 3%T = 30%

A company has 2 000 000 shares at €10.00 each and 5 000 bonds trading at €960 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 3% and the tax rate is 30%. The share’s beta is 0.6, the risk-free rate 2% and the market return 8%. Find the WACC.

β = 0.6rf = 2%rm = 8%rd = 3%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €27 with a variable cost of €12 per unit. Fixed costs are €22 500 per month and profit is taxed at 25%. How many units Q must be sold per month to earn €4 500 after tax?

p = €27v = €12F = €22 500T = 25%after-tax profit = €4 500
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost800+10%%ΔΠ = ?

A company sells 800 units at €47 each, with a variable cost of €45 per unit and fixed costs of €1 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 10%?

Q = 800p = €47v = €45F = €1 000%ΔQ = +10%
%ΔΠ = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: EAR = 24.36 %

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate per period

r/m = 0.22/12 = 0.01833

Compound over one year

EAR = (1 + 0.01833)12 − 1 = 1.244 − 1 = 24.36%

Answer

EAR = 24.36%

The EAR is always above the nominal rate when interest compounds more than once a year.

2.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 30766 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Ordinary annuity factor

((1 + 0.07)5 − 1)/0.07 = 5.751

Annuity due

Each deposit is invested one year longer.

FV = 5 000·5.751·1.07 = €30 766.45

Answer

FV = €30 766.45
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −25171 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −75 000
CF1/(1 + 0.09)1 = 16 000/1.09 = 14 678.90
CF2/(1 + 0.09)2 = 28 000/1.188 = 23 567.04
CF3/(1 + 0.09)3 = 15 000/1.295 = 11 582.75

Add them up

NPV = €−25 171.31

Answer

NPV = €−25 171.31

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 33.14 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(30%) = 1 898.04
NPV(35%) = −1 052.69

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 30 + 5·1 898.04/(1 898.04 − (−1 052.69)) = 33.22%
exact: NPV(33.14%) = 0 → IRR = 33.14%

Answer

IRR = 33.14%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: HPR = 6.918 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Purchase price

C = €20.00, i = 0.05, N = 5
€20.00·(1 − 0.7835)/0.05 + €1 000·0.7835 = €86.59 + €783.53 = €870.12

Selling price

C = €20.00, i = 0.045, N = 4
€20.00·(1 − 0.8386)/0.045 + €1 000·0.8386 = €71.75 + €838.56 = €910.31

Holding period return

HPR = (20 + 910.31 − 870.12)/870.12 = 6.918%

Answer

HPR = 6.918%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 0.994 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€1 135 = €30·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁷)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁷

Solve numerically

P(1%) = €1 134.56, P(1%) = €1 134.56
YTM = 0.994%

Answer

YTM = 0.994%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.725 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €12 000 000, E/V = 0.5, D/V = 0.5

WACC

WACC = 0.5·13% + 0.5·3.5%·(1 − 0.3) = 7.725%

Answer

WACC = 7.725%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 4.923 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 2 000 000·€10.00 = €20 000 000
D = 5 000·€960 = €4 800 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2% + 0.6·6% = 5.6%

Weights

V = €24 800 000, E/V = 0.8065, D/V = 0.1935

WACC

WACC = 0.8065·5.6% + 0.1935·3%·(1 − 0.3) = 4.923%

Answer

WACC = 4.923%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 1900 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Pre-tax profit needed

4 500/(1 − 0.25) = €6 000

Units needed

Q = (22 500 + 6 000)/15 = 1 900

Answer

Q = 1 900 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: %ΔΠ = 26.67 %

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Contribution margin and profit

CM = 800·2 = €1 600
Π = 1 600 − 1 000 = €600

DOL

DOL = 1 600/600 = 2.667

Change in profit

%ΔΠ = 2.667·(+10%) = +26.67%

Answer

%ΔΠ = +26.67%

Check: new profit = 880·2 − 1 000 = €760.00.

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