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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €2 000 at a nominal rate of 3.6% per year, compounded quarterly. Find the value FV of the investment after 10 years.
PV = €2 0003.6% / 4n = 10
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
A loan of €25 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 3 years. The interest rate is 7.2% per year, compounded monthly. Find the monthly payment A.
P = €25 0007.2% / 12N = 36
A = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €40 000 today and returns €16 000, €9 500, €8 500, €9 000, €11 000 at the end of years 1 to 5. The cost of capital is 10%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
A project costs €20 000 and returns €11 500, €13 000, €11 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 11 500CF2 = 13 000CF3 = 11 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 3% and matures in 7 years. Its yield to maturity changes from 6% to 7.5%. By how much ΔP does the bond price change?
F = €1 000coupon = 3%n = 7y1 = 6%y2 = 7.5%
ΔP = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 8% and matures in 3 years. The yield to maturity is 7%. Find the Macaulay duration D in years.
F = €1 000coupon = 8%n = 3YTM = 7%
D = years
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A share with a beta of 1.4 has a required return of 13.3%. The risk-free rate is 3.5%. What expected market return rm does CAPM imply?
β = 1.4re = 13.3%rf = 3.5%
rm = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
A company has equity with a market value of €12 000 000 and a cost of equity of 10%. Its debt consists of 5 000 bonds (face value €1 000, annual coupon 6%, 6 years to maturity) that trade at €1 025 each. The tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC, using the yield to maturity of the bonds as the pre-tax cost of debt.
A company sells 2 500 units at €33 each. The variable cost is €30 per unit and fixed costs are €6 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 2 500p = €33v = €30F = €6 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells two products. Product A sells for €14 with a variable cost of €10; product B sells for €30 with a variable cost of €10. They sell in a fixed mix of 5 units of A for every 2 of B. Fixed costs are €12 000 per month. Find the total number of units Q (A and B together) needed to break even.
pA = €14, vA = €10pB = €30, vB = €10A : B = 5 : 2F = €12 000
Q = units
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 2862 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Monthly rate and number of payments
i = 0.07200000000000001/12 = 0.006
N = 12·3 = 36
Payment
The present value of N equal payments A is A·(1 − (1 + i)⁻ᴺ)/i. Set it equal to the loan and solve for A.
(1 + i)−N = 0.8063
A = 25 000·0.006/(1 − 0.8063) = €774.22
Answer
A = €774.22
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 4.742 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 16 000/1.1 = 14 545.45 → Σ = 14 545.45
year 2: 9 500/1.21 = 7 851.24 → Σ = 22 396.69
year 3: 8 500/1.331 = 6 386.18 → Σ = 28 782.87
year 4: 9 000/1.464 = 6 147.12 → Σ = 34 929.99
year 5: 11 000/1.611 = 6 830.13 → Σ = 41 760.13
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 4 + 5 070.01/6 830.13 = 4.742
Answer
DPB = 4.742 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.667 years).
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 35.46 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(35%) = 122.44
NPV(40%) = −1 144.31
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Duration: the Macaulay duration is the weighted average time at which a bond pays its cash flows, with the present values of the cash flows as weights: D = Σ t·PVₜ/P. The modified duration D/(1 + y) estimates the percentage price change for a small change in yield: %ΔP ≈ −Dmod·Δy.
Present value of each cash flow
t = 1: 80/1.07 = 74.77, t·PV = 74.77
t = 2: 80/1.145 = 69.88, t·PV = 139.75
t = 3: 1080/1.225 = 881.60, t·PV = 2 644.81
Duration
P = 1 026.24
D = 2 859.32/1 026.24 = 2.786
Answer
D = 2.786 years
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: rm = 10.5 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Market risk premium
rm − rf = (13.3% − 3.5%)/1.4 = 7%
Market return
rm = 3.5% + 7% = 10.5%
Answer
rm = 10.5%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 8.229 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 2 500·(33 − 30) = €7 500
Operating profit
Π = 7 500 − 6 000 = €1 500
DOL
DOL = 7 500/1 500 = 5
Answer
DOL = 5
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: Q = 1400 units
Break-even with a sales mix: when products sell in a fixed ratio, use the weighted average contribution margin: weight each product's p − v by its share of units. Break-even units = F/(weighted contribution margin), split again in the mix ratio.