Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years0123…11PV = ?€1 000€1 000€1 000€1 000

An annuity pays €1 000 at the end of each year for 11 years. The interest rate is 7% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.

A = €1 000i = 7%n = 11
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months01…24…300€250 000AB = ?A2.4% / 12

A mortgage of €250 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 25 years at 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 2? Find the outstanding balance B.

P = €250 0002.4% / 12N = 300k = 24
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123−50 00018 50018 50023 500

A machine costs €50 000 today. It generates €18 500 at the end of each year for 3 years and can then be sold for €5 000. The cost of capital is 6%. Find the net present value NPV.

C0 = €50 000CF = €18 500S = €5 000n = 3r = 6%
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
r (%)NPVABr* = ?0

Project A costs €10 000 and returns €6 000, €4 000, €2 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €15 000 and returns €4 000, €6 000, €8 000. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.

A: −10 000, 6 000, 4 000, 2 000B: −15 000, 4 000, 6 000, 8 000
r* = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years01234567€1 240C = ?C = ?C = ? + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 matures in 7 years and pays annual coupons. It sells for €1 240 when the yield to maturity is 4%. Find the coupon rate c in percent.

F = €1 000n = 7P = €1 240YTM = 4%
c = %
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years012345€1 040€70€70 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 7% matures in 5 years and sells for €1 040. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 7%n = 5P = €1 040
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€12 000 000re​ = 12%debt€1 000 000rd​ = 7%T = 25%

A company has equity worth €12 000 000 and debt worth €1 000 000. Its cost of equity is 12%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 25%. Find the WACC.

E = €12 000 000D = €1 000 000re = 12%rd = 7%T = 25%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity2 500 000 × €22.50β = 1.5rf​ = 2%, rm​ = 7.5%debt20 000 × €1 000rd​ = 7%T = 20%

A company has 2 500 000 shares at €22.50 each and 20 000 bonds trading at €1 000 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 20%. The share’s beta is 1.5, the risk-free rate 2% and the market return 7.5%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.5rf = 2%rm = 7.5%rd = 7%T = 20%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €35 with a variable cost of €30 per unit. Fixed costs are €7 500 per month and profit is taxed at 20%. How many units Q must be sold per month to earn €4 000 after tax?

p = €35v = €30F = €7 500T = 20%after-tax profit = €4 000
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost8 000+15%%ΔΠ = ?

A company sells 8 000 units at €19 each, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €20 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 15%?

Q = 8 000p = €19v = €15F = €20 000%ΔQ = +15%
%ΔΠ = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 7499 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Annuity factor

(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.4751)/0.07 = 7.499

Present value

PV = 1 000·7.499 = €7 498.67

Answer

PV = €7 498.67
2.Time value of money

Answer: B = 235043 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.002, N = 300
A = 250 000·0.002/(1 − (1 + 0.002)−300) = €1 108.99

Present value of the remaining payments

Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.

N − k = 300 − 24 = 276
B = 1109·(1 − (1 + 0.002)−276)/0.002 = €235 043.02

Answer

B = €235 043.02
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 3649 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of the yearly cash flows

18 500·2.673 = 49 450.72

Present value of the salvage value

5 000/1.191 = 4 198.10

NPV

NPV = −50 000 + 49 450.72 + 4 198.10 = €3 648.82

Answer

NPV = €3 648.82
4.NPV & IRR

Answer: r* = 5.567 %

Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.

Difference in cash flows

ΔCF0 = −15 000 − (−10 000) = −5 000
ΔCF1 = 4 000 − 6 000 = −2 000
ΔCF2 = 6 000 − 4 000 = 2 000
ΔCF3 = 8 000 − 2 000 = 6 000

IRR of the difference

NPVΔ(5%) = 92.32
NPVΔ(6%) = −69.08
r* = 5.567%

Answer

r* = 5.567%

Check: at 5.567% both NPVs are €972.77.

5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: c = 7.999 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Present value of the face value

1000·(1 + 0.04)−7 = €759.92

Coupon

C = (1240 − 759.92)/6.002 = €79.99

Coupon rate

c = 79.99/1000 = 7.999%

Answer

c = 7.999%
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 6.049 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€1 040 = €70·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁵)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁵

Solve numerically

P(6%) = €1 042.12, P(7%) = €1 000.00
YTM = 6.049%

Answer

YTM = 6.049%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 11.48 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €13 000 000, E/V = 0.9231, D/V = 0.07692

WACC

WACC = 0.9231·12% + 0.07692·7%·(1 − 0.25) = 11.48%

Answer

WACC = 11.48%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 9.03 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 2 500 000·€22.50 = €56 250 000
D = 20 000·€1 000 = €20 000 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2% + 1.5·5.5% = 10.25%

Weights

V = €76 250 000, E/V = 0.7377, D/V = 0.2623

WACC

WACC = 0.7377·10.25% + 0.2623·7%·(1 − 0.2) = 9.03%

Answer

WACC = 9.03%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 2500 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Pre-tax profit needed

4 000/(1 − 0.2) = €5 000

Units needed

Q = (7 500 + 5 000)/5 = 2 500

Answer

Q = 2 500 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: %ΔΠ = 40 %

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Contribution margin and profit

CM = 8 000·4 = €32 000
Π = 32 000 − 20 000 = €12 000

DOL

DOL = 32 000/12 000 = 2.667

Change in profit

%ΔΠ = 2.667·(+15%) = +40%

Answer

%ΔΠ = +40%

Check: new profit = 9 200·4 − 20 000 = €16 800.00.

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