Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years012345€3 000FV = ?

You invest €3 000 at a nominal rate of 3.6% per year, compounded monthly. Find the value FV of the investment after 5 years.

PV = €3 0003.6% / 12n = 5
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…N = ?€20 000€375€375€375€3752.4% / 12

You borrow €20 000 at 2.4% per year, compounded monthly, and repay €375 at the end of every month. How many months does it take until the loan is repaid (the last payment may be smaller)? Give the number of payments N.

P = €20 000A = €3752.4% / 12
N = payments
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years01234−45 00011 00019 00019 00018 000

An investment of €45 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 4: €11 000, €19 000, €19 000, €18 000. The cost of capital is 7.000000000000001%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 7.000000000000001%CF0 = −45 000CF1 = 11 000CF2 = 19 000CF3 = 19 000CF4 = 18 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years0123−10 0005 0005 5007 000

A project costs €10 000 and returns €5 000, €5 500, €7 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −10 000CF1 = 5 000CF2 = 5 500CF3 = 7 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
half-years0123…24€30€30€30 + €1 000P = ?

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 6% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 12 years. The yield to maturity is 4% per year. Find the price P of the bond.

F = €1 000coupon = 6%YTM = 4%n = 12
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years0123€1 225€90€90€90 + €1 090

A bond with 14 years to maturity (face value €1 000, annual coupon 9%) sells for €1 225. The issuer can call it in 3 years at a call price of €1 090. Find the yield to call YTC in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 9%P = €1 225call price = €1 090call in 3 years
YTC = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
βr (%)SMLrf​ = 1%β = 1rm​ = ?β = 1.25re​ = 8.5%

A share with a beta of 1.25 has a required return of 8.5%. The risk-free rate is 1%. What expected market return rm does CAPM imply?

β = 1.25re = 8.5%rf = 1%
rm = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity2 000 000 × €35.50β = 1.5rf​ = 2%, rm​ = 7%debt40 000 × €1 000rd​ = 6%T = 28%

A company has 2 000 000 shares at €35.50 each and 40 000 bonds trading at €1 000 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 6% and the tax rate is 28%. The share’s beta is 1.5, the risk-free rate 2% and the market return 7%. Find the WACC.

β = 1.5rf = 2%rm = 7%rd = 6%T = 28%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costQ = ?

A product sells for €21 with a variable cost of €15 per unit. Fixed costs are €9 000 per month and profit is taxed at 25%. How many units Q must be sold per month to earn €4 500 after tax?

p = €21v = €15F = €9 000T = 25%after-tax profit = €4 500
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed cost4 000−12%%ΔΠ = ?

A company sells 4 000 units at €32 each, with a variable cost of €30 per unit and fixed costs of €4 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume falls by 12%?

Q = 4 000p = €32v = €30F = €4 000%ΔQ = −12%
%ΔΠ = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: FV = 3591 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = r/m = 0.036000000000000004/12 = 0.003
N = m·n = 12·5 = 60

Future value

FV = 3 000·(1 + 0.003)60 = 3 000·1.197 = €3 590.68

Answer

FV = €3 590.68
2.Time value of money

Answer: N = 57 payments

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rearrange the annuity formula

i = 0.002
(1 + i)−N = 1 − 20 000·0.002/375 = 0.8933

Solve with logarithms

N = −ln(0.8933)/ln(1.002) = 56.45

Round up to whole payments

56 full payments leave a small balance, which the last, smaller payment clears.

N = 57

Answer

N = 57 payments
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = 11117 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −45 000
CF1/(1 + 0.07)1 = 11 000/1.07 = 10 280.37
CF2/(1 + 0.07)2 = 19 000/1.145 = 16 595.34
CF3/(1 + 0.07)3 = 19 000/1.225 = 15 509.66
CF4/(1 + 0.07)4 = 18 000/1.311 = 13 732.11

Add them up

NPV = €11 117.48

Answer

NPV = €11 117.48

NPV is positive, so the project earns more than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 31.92 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(30%) = 286.75
NPV(35%) = −433.37

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 30 + 5·286.75/(286.75 − (−433.37)) = 31.99%
exact: NPV(31.92%) = 0 → IRR = 31.92%

Answer

IRR = 31.92%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: P = 1189 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Per period

C = €30.00, i = 0.02, N = 24

Present value of the coupons

€30.00·(1 − 0.6217)/0.02 = €567.42

Present value of the face value

€1 000·0.6217 = €621.72

Price

P = €1 189.14

Answer

P = €1 189.14

The yield is below the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a premium.

6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTC = 3.81 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

1225 = 90·(1 − (1 + y)−3)/y + 1090/(1 + y)3

Solve numerically

y = 3%: €1 252.08
y = 4%: €1 218.76
YTC = 3.81%

Answer

YTC = 3.81%

The yield to maturity is 6.503%. Investors in a premium bond expect it to be called, so the lower yield to call is the more realistic one.

7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: rm = 7 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market risk premium

rm − rf = (8.5% − 1%)/1.25 = 6%

Market return

rm = 1% + 6% = 7%

Answer

rm = 7%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 7.633 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Market values

E = 2 000 000·€35.50 = €71 000 000
D = 40 000·€1 000 = €40 000 000

Cost of equity (CAPM)

re = 2% + 1.5·5% = 9.5%

Weights

V = €111 000 000, E/V = 0.6396, D/V = 0.3604

WACC

WACC = 0.6396·9.5% + 0.3604·6%·(1 − 0.28) = 7.633%

Answer

WACC = 7.633%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 2500 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Pre-tax profit needed

4 500/(1 − 0.25) = €6 000

Units needed

Q = (9 000 + 6 000)/6 = 2 500

Answer

Q = 2 500 units
10.Break-even analysis

Answer: %ΔΠ = −24 %

Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.

Contribution margin and profit

CM = 4 000·2 = €8 000
Π = 8 000 − 4 000 = €4 000

DOL

DOL = 8 000/4 000 = 2

Change in profit

%ΔΠ = 2·(−12%) = −24%

Answer

%ΔΠ = −24%

Check: new profit = 3 520·2 − 4 000 = €3 040.00.

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