Corporate Finance: cram pack

Formula sheets, the key method steps for every topic and 10 practice problems, with full solutions at the back.

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1Formulas and methods

Time value of money

Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i

Method

  1. Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
  2. Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
  3. Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
  4. Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.

NPV & IRR

Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)

Method

  1. List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
  2. Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
  3. Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
  4. For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.

Bond pricing & yield

Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down

Method

  1. Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
  2. Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
  3. For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
  4. Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.

CAPM & WACC

CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D

Break-even analysis

Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q

2Practice problems

1.Time value of moneyMedium
years01234567PV = ?€5 000

You need €5 000 in 7 years. An account pays 5% per year, compounded monthly. How much must you deposit today? Find the present value PV.

FV = €5 0005% / 12n = 7
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
months0123…36€20 000AAAA3% / 12, I = ?

A loan of €20 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 3 years at 3% per year, compounded monthly. How much interest I is paid in total over the life of the loan?

P = €20 0003% / 12N = 36
I = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
years0123−20 0004 0005 00010 000

An investment of €20 000 gives these cash flows at the end of years 1 to 3: €4 000, €5 000, €10 000. The cost of capital is 15%. Find the net present value NPV.

r = 15%CF0 = −20 000CF1 = 4 000CF2 = 5 000CF3 = 10 000
NPV = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
years012−40 00024 50024 000

A project costs €40 000 and returns €24 500, €24 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.

CF0 = −40 000CF1 = 24 500CF2 = 24 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
years01234P€50€50€50 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 5% and matures in 4 years. Its yield to maturity changes from 7% to 6%. By how much ΔP does the bond price change?

F = €1 000coupon = 5%n = 4y1 = 7%y2 = 6%
ΔP = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
years012345€955€40€40 + €1 000

A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 4% matures in 5 years and sells for €955. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.

F = €1 000coupon = 4%n = 5P = €955
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
WACC = ?equity€3 000 000re​ = 8%debt€5 000 000rd​ = 7%T = 25.8%

A company has equity worth €3 000 000 and debt worth €5 000 000. Its cost of equity is 8%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC.

E = €3 000 000D = €5 000 000re = 8%rd = 7%T = 25.8%
WACC = %
8.CAPM & WACCHard
WACC = ?equity2 000 000 × €17.00D0​ = €1.50g = 3%debt€20 400 000rd​ = 5%T = 30%

A company has 2 000 000 shares trading at €17.00; the book value of its equity is €10 200 000. It just paid a dividend of €1.50 per share, and dividends grow by 3% per year. Its debt has a market value of €20 400 000 and a pre-tax cost of 5%. The tax rate is 30%. Find the WACC, using the dividend growth model for the cost of equity.

N = 2 000 000P0 = €17.00book equity = €10 200 000D0 = €1.50g = 3%D = €20 400 000rd = 5%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
Q€ABQ = ?

A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €15 000 per year and a variable cost of €10 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €35 000 per year and a variable cost of €5 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?

FA = €15 000vA = €10FB = €35 000vB = €5
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
Q€revenuetotal costfixed costBE

A product sells for €26 per unit, with a variable cost of €20 per unit and fixed costs of €7 200 per year. Budgeted sales are 1 440 units. Find the margin of safety MS as a percentage of budgeted sales.

F = €7 200p = €26v = €20budget = 1 440
MS = %

3Solutions

1.Time value of money

Answer: PV = 3526 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Rate and number of periods

i = 0.05/12 = 0.004167
N = 12·7 = 84

Present value

PV = FV/(1 + i)N = 5 000/1.418 = €3 526.00

Answer

PV = €3 526.00
2.Time value of money

Answer: I = 938.5 €

Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.

Monthly payment

i = 0.0025, N = 36
A = 20 000·0.0025/(1 − (1 + 0.0025)−36) = €581.62

Total interest

I = N·A − P = 36·581.6 − 20 000 = €938.47

Answer

I = €938.47
3.NPV & IRR

Answer: NPV = −6166 €

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Present value of each cash flow

CF0 = −20 000
CF1/(1 + 0.15)1 = 4 000/1.15 = 3 478.26
CF2/(1 + 0.15)2 = 5 000/1.322 = 3 780.72
CF3/(1 + 0.15)3 = 10 000/1.521 = 6 575.16

Add them up

NPV = €−6 165.86

Answer

NPV = €−6 165.86

NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.

4.NPV & IRR

Answer: IRR = 13.92 %

Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.

Bracket the IRR

NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.

NPV(10%) = 2 107.44
NPV(15%) = −548.20

Narrow down

Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.

IRR ≈ 10 + 5·2 107.44/(2 107.44 − (−548.20)) = 13.97%
exact: NPV(13.92%) = 0 → IRR = 13.92%

Answer

IRR = 13.92%
5.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: ΔP = 33.09 €

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Price at the old yield

C = €50.00, i = 0.07, N = 4
€50.00·(1 − 0.7629)/0.07 + €1 000·0.7629 = €169.36 + €762.90 = €932.26

Price at the new yield

C = €50.00, i = 0.06, N = 4
€50.00·(1 − 0.7921)/0.06 + €1 000·0.7921 = €173.26 + €792.09 = €965.35

Change

ΔP = 965.35 − 932.26 = €33.09

Answer

ΔP = €33.09
6.Bond pricing & yield

Answer: YTM = 5.041 %

Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.

Equation for the yield

€955 = €40·(1 − (1 + y)⁻⁵)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)⁵

Solve numerically

P(5%) = €956.71, P(6%) = €915.75
YTM = 5.041%

Answer

YTM = 5.041%
7.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 6.246 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Weights

V = €8 000 000, E/V = 0.375, D/V = 0.625

WACC

WACC = 0.375·8% + 0.625·7%·(1 − 0.258) = 6.246%

Answer

WACC = 6.246%
8.CAPM & WACC

Answer: WACC = 8.868 %

Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).

Cost of equity

D1 = 1.5·1.03 = €1.54
re = 1.545/17 + 0.03 = 12.09%

Market values

E = 2 000 000·€17.00 = €34 000 000
V = €54 400 000, E/V = 0.625, D/V = 0.375

WACC

WACC = 0.625·12.09% + 0.375·5%·(1 − 0.3) = 8.868%

Answer

WACC = 8.868%
9.Break-even analysis

Answer: Q = 4000 units

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Equal total costs

15 000 + 10Q = 35 000 + 5Q

Solve for Q

Q = (35 000 − 15 000)/(10 − 5) = 4 000

Answer

Q = 4 000 units

Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.

10.Break-even analysis

Answer: MS = 16.67 %

Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).

Break-even quantity

Q = F/(p − v) = 7 200/6 = 1 200

Margin of safety

MS = (1 440 − 1 200)/1 440·100 = 16.67%

Answer

MS = 16.67%

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