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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
You invest €10 000 at 4% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 17 years.
PV = €10 000r = 4%t = 17
FV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
A mortgage of €300 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 25 years at 7.2% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 19? Find the outstanding balance B.
P = €300 0007.2% / 12N = 300k = 228
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A project costs €20 000 today and returns €8 000, €5 000, €6 500, €6 000, €7 000, €4 000 at the end of years 1 to 6. The cost of capital is 12%. Assume cash flows arrive evenly through each year. Find the discounted payback period DPB in years.
A project costs €25 000 and returns €18 000, €10 000 at the end of years 1 to 2. Find its internal rate of return IRR in percent.
CF0 = −25 000CF1 = 18 000CF2 = 10 000
IRR = %
5.Bond pricing & yieldMedium
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays an annual coupon of 5% and matures in 9 years. Its yield to maturity changes from 7% to 7.5%. By how much ΔP does the bond price change?
F = €1 000coupon = 5%n = 9y1 = 7%y2 = 7.5%
ΔP = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 2% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 5 years. It sells for €723. Find its yield to maturity YTM as an annual rate (twice the half-yearly yield), in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 2% (2×)n = 5P = €723
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €3 000 000 and debt worth €2 000 000. Its cost of equity is 13%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 4% and the tax rate is 25.8%. Find the WACC.
A company has equity with a market value of €10 000 000 and a cost of equity of 13%. Its debt consists of 8 000 bonds (face value €1 000, annual coupon 6%, 9 years to maturity) that trade at €1 071 each. The tax rate is 20%. Find the WACC, using the yield to maturity of the bonds as the pre-tax cost of debt.
A product can be made in two ways. Method A has fixed costs of €10 000 per year and a variable cost of €18 per unit. Method B, more automated, has fixed costs of €13 000 per year and a variable cost of €12 per unit. At what yearly volume Q do both methods cost the same?
FA = €10 000vA = €18FB = €13 000vB = €12
Q = units
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells 3 000 units at €45 each, with a variable cost of €25 per unit and fixed costs of €40 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume rises by 12%?
Q = 3 000p = €45v = €25F = €40 000%ΔQ = +12%
%ΔΠ = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 19739 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Exponent
r·t = 0.04·17 = 0.68
e0.68 = 1.974
Future value
FV = 10 000·1.974 = €19 738.78
Answer
FV = €19 738.78
2.Time value of money
Answer: B = 125911 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.
N − k = 300 − 228 = 72
B = 2159·(1 − (1 + 0.006)−72)/0.006 = €125 910.77
Answer
B = €125 910.77
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: DPB = 4.109 years
Payback period: the time until the cumulative cash flows repay the initial investment. Cash is assumed to come in evenly during each year, so the last part is a fraction of a year. The simple payback ignores the time value of money; the discounted payback period uses the discounted cash flows instead.
Discounted and cumulative cash flows
year 1: 8 000/1.12 = 7 142.86 → Σ = 7 142.86
year 2: 5 000/1.254 = 3 985.97 → Σ = 11 128.83
year 3: 6 500/1.405 = 4 626.57 → Σ = 15 755.40
year 4: 6 000/1.574 = 3 813.11 → Σ = 19 568.51
year 5: 7 000/1.762 = 3 971.99 → Σ = 23 540.49
Fraction of the last year
DPB = 4 + 431.49/3 971.99 = 4.109
Answer
DPB = 4.109 years
The discounted payback is always longer than the simple payback (3.083 years).
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: IRR = 8.774 %
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Bracket the IRR
NPV falls as the rate rises, so the IRR lies between a rate with positive NPV and one with negative NPV.
NPV(5%) = 1 213.15
NPV(10%) = −371.90
Narrow down
Linear interpolation gives a first estimate; repeating it (or a calculator's IRR function) gives the exact rate.
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Per period
C = €10.00, N = 10
Solve numerically
i = 4.501% per half-year
YTM
YTM = 2·4.501% = 9.002%
Answer
YTM = 9.002%
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 8.987 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Weights
V = €5 000 000, E/V = 0.6, D/V = 0.4
WACC
WACC = 0.6·13% + 0.4·4%·(1 − 0.258) = 8.987%
Answer
WACC = 8.987%
8.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 8.847 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Cost-volume-profit: each unit sold earns a contribution margin, price minus variable cost per unit. Profit = Q·(p − v) − F, where F is the fixed cost. At the break-even point profit is zero, so Q = F/(p − v).
Equal total costs
10 000 + 18Q = 13 000 + 12Q
Solve for Q
Q = (13 000 − 10 000)/(18 − 12) = 500
Answer
Q = 500 units
Below this volume method A is cheaper; above it the automated method B is cheaper.
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: %ΔΠ = 36 %
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.