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1Formulas and methods
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Bond pricing & yield
Bond price
P = C·(1 − (1 + y)−n)/y + F/(1 + y)n
Semi-annual
C/2, y/2 and 2n periods
Current yield
C/P
Price and yield
yield up → price down
Method
Find the coupon per period and the yield per period.
Price = present value of the coupons (an annuity) + present value of the face value.
For semi-annual coupons use half the coupon, half the yield and twice the periods.
Check: if the yield is above the coupon rate, the price is below face value.
CAPM & WACC
CAPM
re = rf + β·(rm − rf)
WACC
E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T)
Firm value
V = E + D
Break-even analysis
Contribution margin
CM = p − v
Break-even quantity
QBE = FC/(p − v)
Target profit
Q = (FC + profit)/(p − v)
Profit
π = (p − v)·Q − FC
Margin of safety
(Q − QBE)/Q
2Practice problems
1.Time value of moneyMedium
An annuity pays €3 000 at the end of each year for 13 years. The interest rate is 7% per year. Find the present value PV of the annuity.
A = €3 000i = 7%n = 13
PV = €
2.Time value of moneyHard
A mortgage of €250 000 is repaid with equal monthly payments over 30 years at 6% per year, compounded monthly. How much is still owed just after the payment at the end of year 14? Find the outstanding balance B.
P = €250 0006% / 12N = 360k = 168
B = €
3.NPV & IRRMedium
A machine costs €40 000 today, lasts 9 years and costs €5 000 per year to run (paid at the end of each year). The cost of capital is 8%. Find its equivalent annual cost EAC.
C0 = €40 000M = €5 000n = 9r = 8%
EAC = €
4.NPV & IRRHard
Project A costs €40 000 and returns €22 000, €16 500, €8 000 at the end of years 1 to 3. Project B costs €42 000 and returns €11 500, €16 000, €23 000. Find the crossover rate r* at which both projects have the same NPV, in percent.
A bond with a face value of €1 000 pays a 4.5% annual coupon in two half-yearly payments and matures in 6 years. The yield to maturity is 7% per year. Find the price P of the bond.
F = €1 000coupon = 4.5%YTM = 7%n = 6
P = €
6.Bond pricing & yieldHard
A bond with a face value of €1 000 and an annual coupon of 3% matures in 3 years and sells for €1 045. Find its yield to maturity YTM in percent.
F = €1 000coupon = 3%n = 3P = €1 045
YTM = %
7.CAPM & WACCMedium
A company has equity worth €12 000 000 and debt worth €1 000 000. Its cost of equity is 9%, its pre-tax cost of debt is 3.5% and the tax rate is 21%. Find the WACC.
A company has 2 000 000 shares at €46.50 each and 20 000 bonds trading at €1 000 each. The pre-tax cost of debt is 7% and the tax rate is 30%. The share’s beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate 3% and the market return 9%. Find the WACC.
β = 1.1rf = 3%rm = 9%rd = 7%T = 30%
WACC = %
9.Break-even analysisMedium
A company sells 1 800 units at €35 each. The variable cost is €15 per unit and fixed costs are €30 000. Find the degree of operating leverage DOL at this sales level.
Q = 1 800p = €35v = €15F = €30 000
DOL =
10.Break-even analysisHard
A company sells 2 000 units at €35 each, with a variable cost of €15 per unit and fixed costs of €16 000. By what percentage %ΔΠ does operating profit change if sales volume falls by 20%?
Q = 2 000p = €35v = €15F = €16 000%ΔQ = −20%
%ΔΠ = %
3Solutions
1.Time value of money
Answer: PV = 25073 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Annuity factor
(1 − (1 + i)−n)/i = (1 − 0.415)/0.07 = 8.358
Present value
PV = 3 000·8.358 = €25 072.95
Answer
PV = €25 072.95
2.Time value of money
Answer: B = 184719 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Whatever is still owed must be exactly paid off by the remaining payments.
N − k = 360 − 168 = 192
B = 1499·(1 − (1 + 0.005)−192)/0.005 = €184 718.56
Answer
B = €184 718.56
3.NPV & IRR
Answer: EAC = 11403 €
Equivalent annual cost: spread the present value of all costs over the life as an equal yearly amount (an annuity): EAC = PV·r/(1 − (1 + r)⁻ⁿ). It lets you compare machines with different lives.
Annuity factor
(1 − 1.08−9)/0.08 = 6.247
Annualised purchase price
40 000/6.247 = 6 403.19
EAC
EAC = 6 403.19 + 5 000 = €11 403.19
Answer
EAC = €11 403.19
4.NPV & IRR
Answer: r* = 6.978 %
Crossover rate: the discount rate at which two projects have the same NPV. It is the IRR of the difference in their cash flows (B − A). Below it the project with the later, larger cash flows has the higher NPV; above it the other one wins.
Difference in cash flows
ΔCF0 = −42 000 − (−40 000) = −2 000
ΔCF1 = 11 500 − 22 000 = −10 500
ΔCF2 = 16 000 − 16 500 = −500
ΔCF3 = 23 000 − 8 000 = 15 000
IRR of the difference
NPVΔ(6%) = 243.63
NPVΔ(7%) = −5.34
r* = 6.978%
Answer
r* = 6.978%
Check: at 6.978% both NPVs are €1 517.00.
5.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: P = 879.2 €
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Per period
C = €22.50, i = 0.035, N = 12
Present value of the coupons
€22.50·(1 − 0.6618)/0.035 = €217.43
Present value of the face value
€1 000·0.6618 = €661.78
Price
P = €879.21
Answer
P = €879.21
The yield is above the coupon rate, so the bond sells at a discount.
6.Bond pricing & yield
Answer: YTM = 1.456 %
Bond pricing: a bond’s price is the present value of its cash flows, discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM): the coupons form an annuity and the face value is paid back at maturity. P = C·(1 − (1 + y)⁻ⁿ)/y + F/(1 + y)ⁿ. When the yield is above the coupon rate the bond trades below face value, and the other way round.
Equation for the yield
€1 045 = €30·(1 − (1 + y)⁻³)/y + €1 000/(1 + y)³
Solve numerically
P(1%) = €1 058.82, P(2%) = €1 028.84
YTM = 1.456%
Answer
YTM = 1.456%
7.CAPM & WACC
Answer: WACC = 8.52 %
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Cost of capital: CAPM gives the return shareholders require: re = rf + β·(rm − rf). The weighted average cost of capital mixes equity and debt by their market values: WACC = E/V·re + D/V·rd·(1 − T), with V = E + D. Interest is tax-deductible, hence the (1 − T).
Market values
E = 2 000 000·€46.50 = €93 000 000
D = 20 000·€1 000 = €20 000 000
Cost of equity (CAPM)
re = 3% + 1.1·6% = 9.6%
Weights
V = €113 000 000, E/V = 0.823, D/V = 0.177
WACC
WACC = 0.823·9.6% + 0.177·7%·(1 − 0.3) = 8.768%
Answer
WACC = 8.768%
9.Break-even analysis
Answer: DOL = 6
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.
Total contribution margin
CM = 1 800·(35 − 15) = €36 000
Operating profit
Π = 36 000 − 30 000 = €6 000
DOL
DOL = 36 000/6 000 = 6
Answer
DOL = 6
10.Break-even analysis
Answer: %ΔΠ = −33.33 %
Operating leverage: fixed costs make profit react more strongly than sales. The degree of operating leverage DOL = contribution margin/operating profit tells you that a 1% change in sales changes profit by DOL %. It is very high just above break-even and falls as sales grow.