laminar below Re ≈ 2000, turbulent above Re ≈ 4000
Mean velocity
V = Q/A, A = π·D²/4
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g)
Minor losses
hm = ΣK·V²/(2g)
Typical K values
entrance 0.5, exit 1.0, 90° bend ≈ 0.3
Pressure drop
Δp = ρ·g·hf
Two open reservoirs
Δz = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Free outlet
H = (1 + f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Open-channel flow (Manning)
Manning equation
V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2
Flow rate
Q = A·V
Hydraulic radius
R = A/P (P = wetted perimeter, free surface excluded)
Rectangle
A = b·y, P = b + 2y
Trapezoid (side slope z:1)
A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²)
Circular pipe, full or half full
R = D/4
Required slope
S = (n·Q/(A·R2/3))²
Pumps & pump power
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp
Shaft power
Pshaft = Ph/ηpump
Electrical power
Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor
Pump head
H = Δz + Δp/(ρ·g) + hL
System losses
hL = (f·L/D + ΣK)·V²/(2g)
Time value of money
Future value
FV = PV·(1 + i)n
Present value
PV = FV/(1 + i)n
Several periods per year
i = r/m, N = m·n
Annuity, present value
PV = PMT·[1 − (1 + i)−n]/i
Annuity, future value
FV = PMT·[(1 + i)n − 1]/i
Method
Draw a timeline with every cash flow and its timing.
Match the rate to the period: a monthly rate for monthly payments.
Use FV = PV·(1 + i)ⁿ for single amounts and the annuity formulas for equal payments.
Check the sign and the order of magnitude of the answer.
NPV & IRR
Net present value
NPV = −C0 + Σ CFt/(1 + r)t
Equal cash flows
NPV = −C0 + CF·[1 − (1 + r)−n]/r
Internal rate of return
the r at which NPV = 0
Decision
accept when NPV > 0 (or IRR > required return)
Method
List all cash flows with their year; the investment at year 0 is negative.
Discount each cash flow: CFt/(1 + r)t.
Add them up to get the NPV. Positive means the project earns more than r.
For the IRR, find the rate that makes NPV zero by trial or interpolation.
Normal distribution
z-score
z = (x − μ)/σ
Below x
P(X < x) = Φ(z)
Above x
P(X > x) = 1 − Φ(z)
Between
Φ(z2) − Φ(z1)
Percentile
x = μ + z·σ
Method
Convert the value to a z-score: z = (x − μ)/σ.
Look up Φ(z), the area to the left of z.
For the area to the right use 1 − Φ(z); for an interval subtract the two left areas.
For a percentile, work backwards: find z for the area, then x = μ + z·σ.
2Practice problems
1.Beam support reactionsMedium
The simply supported beam has a pin at A and a roller at B. Find the vertical support reaction RB.
L = 5 mP1 = 50 kN at 3 mP2 = 50 kN at 4 m
RB = kN
2.Beam support reactionsHard
The beam has a pin at A and a roller at B, 3.5 m from A, and overhangs B to the free end C. It carries a point load P at 2.5 m from A and a uniformly distributed load w from 3.5 m to the free end at 5 m. Find the vertical reaction RA, taking upward as positive.
AB = 3.5 mAC = 5 mP = 65 kN at 2.5 mw = 6 kN/m from 3.5 to 5 m
RA = kN
3.Truss: method of jointsMedium
Use the method of joints to find the force FBC in member BC. Give tension as positive and compression as negative.
span = 4 mheight = 4 mB is 3 m from Avertical load = 50 kN
FBC = kN
4.Truss: method of jointsHard
Exactly one member of this truss carries no force under these loads. Which is the zero-force member? Click it in the diagram.
B: 35 kN ↓F: 25 kN ↓F: 15 kN →G: 40 kN ↓
1member AB
2member BC
3member CD
4member DE
5member FG
6member GH
7member AF
8member HE
9member BF
10member CG
11member DH
12member BG
13member DG
5.Shear force & bending momentMedium
Find the shear force Vx at the section x = 3.5 m from support A. Use sagging moments positive and upward shear on the left face positive.
L = 6 mw = 3 kN/m from 0 to 6 mx = 3.5 m
Vx = kN
6.Shear force & bending momentHard
The marks A to G split the beam into six equal parts. At which mark is the bending moment largest in size, sagging or hogging? Click it in the diagram.
30 kN @ 6 m60 kN @ 1 m6 kN/m, 0–5 m
1A (x = 0 m)
2B (x = 1 m)
3C (x = 2 m)
4D (x = 3 m)
5E (x = 4 m)
6F (x = 5 m)
7G (x = 6 m)
7.Beam deflectionMedium
A cantilever carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole length. Find the deflection δ at the free end.
w = 5 kN/mL = 1.5 mE = 11 GPa (timber)I = 120 × 10⁶ mm⁴
δ = mm
8.Beam deflectionHard
A simply supported timber beam of rectangular section, 100 mm wide, carries a uniformly distributed load w over its whole span. Its midspan deflection may not exceed span/250. Find the smallest depth hreq of the section.
w = 2 kN/mL = 4 mE = 11 GPa (timber)b = 100 mm
hreq = mm
9.Column bucklingMedium
A column of length L made of steel is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. Using Euler’s formula, find its critical buckling load Pcr.
L = 4 mE = 200 GPa (steel)b × h = 40 × 80 mm
Pcr = kN
10.Column bucklingHard
A column of length L made of aluminium is fixed at the base and pinned at the top. Find its slenderness and the critical buckling stress σcr from Euler’s formula.
L = 5 mE = 70 GPa (aluminium)d = 60 mm
σcr = MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of areaMedium
A symmetric I-section has flanges 200 mm wide and 10 mm thick, an overall depth of 280 mm and a web 10 mm thick. Find its second moment of area Ix about the horizontal centroidal axis x.
B = 200 mmH = 280 mmtf = 10 mmtw = 10 mm
Ix = × 10⁶ mm⁴
12.Centroid & second moment of areaHard
A symmetric I-section has flanges 120 mm wide and 20 mm thick, an overall depth of 360 mm and a web 8 mm thick. It carries a bending moment of 80 kN·m about the axis x. Find the size of the maximum bending stress σmax in the section.
An 8 m thick overconsolidated clay layer has Cc = 0.4, Cr = 0.06 and e₀ = 1.1. At its mid-depth the effective vertical stress is 90 kPa and the preconsolidation pressure is 160 kPa. A new building adds 65 kPa of vertical stress at mid-depth. Find the primary consolidation settlement S in mm.
A clay layer 7 m thick has a coefficient of consolidation cv = 5 m²/year. It lies between two sand layers, so water drains out at the top and the bottom. For 90% average consolidation the time factor is Tv = 0.848. How many years t does the layer take to reach 90% consolidation?
A vertical rectangular gate 3 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of water, with its top edge 2.5 m below the surface. Find the resultant hydrostatic force F on the gate.
A vertical rectangular gate 2 m wide sits in the wall of a tank of glycerin, with its top edge 2.5 m below the surface. Find the depth ycp of the centre of pressure below the surface.
Water flows at a mean velocity of 0.8 m/s through a pipe 500 m long with an inside diameter of 150 mm. Use the Darcy friction factor f = 0.028 and g = 9.81 m/s². Find the friction head loss hf.
A pipe 200 m long with an inside diameter of 200 mm (Darcy friction factor f = 0.022) runs from an open reservoir and discharges as a free jet into the air. The minor losses are a square-edged entrance (K = 0.5), 4 bends (K = 0.3 each) and a valve (K = 2). Use g = 9.81 m/s². How far H must the reservoir surface be above the pipe outlet for a flow rate of 40 L/s?
A trapezoidal brickwork channel has a bottom width of 1.5 m and side slopes of 3:1 (horizontal:vertical). Water flows uniformly 1.4 m deep. Manning n = 0.015 and the bed slope is S = 0.0005. Find the flow rate Q in m³/s.
b = 1.5 my = 1.4 mz = 3n = 0.015S = 0.0005
Q = m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)Hard
A concrete sewer with an inside diameter of 375 mm (Manning n = 0.013) must reach a self-cleansing velocity of 0.75 m/s when flowing just full. Find the minimum slope S (in m/m).
D = 375 mmn = 0.013V = 0.75 m/s
S = m/m
23.Pumps & pump powerMedium
A pump delivers 40 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) against a head of 72 m. The pump efficiency is 72% and the electric motor driving it has an efficiency of 88%. Use g = 9.81 m/s². Find the electrical power Pel the motor draws, in kW.
A pump moves 20 L/s of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m³) from an open lower reservoir to an upper tank whose water surface is 7 m higher. The pipe is 400 m long with an inside diameter of 100 mm and a Darcy friction factor f = 0.025; the minor-loss coefficients add up to ΣK = 8 (entrance and exit included). Use g = 9.81 m/s². The upper tank is closed and the air above its water is at a gauge pressure of 400 kPa. Find the head H the pump must add.
You invest €20 000 at 7% per year with continuous compounding. Find the value FV after 10 years.
PV = €20 000r = 7%t = 10
FV = €
26.Time value of moneyHard
You save €250 at the end of every month for 7 years. The account pays 2.4% per year, compounded monthly. How much have you saved at the end? Find FV.
A = €2502.4% / 12N = 84
FV = €
27.NPV & IRRMedium
A machine costs €40 000 today. It generates €9 000 at the end of each year for 5 years and can then be sold for €8 000. The cost of capital is 6%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €40 000CF = €9 000S = €8 000n = 5r = 6%
NPV = €
28.NPV & IRRHard
A project costs €150 000 today. Its cash flow is €25 000 at the end of year 1 and grows by 2% per year until the last cash flow at the end of year 6. The cost of capital is 8%. Find the net present value NPV.
C0 = €150 000CF1 = €25 000g = 2%n = 6r = 8%
NPV = €
29.Normal distributionMedium
Drag z so that the shaded area between −z and z under the standard normal curve is 0.5705. Find z to two decimals.
A = 0.5705
z =
30.Normal distributionHard
The mass X of a product from line 1 and Y from line 2 are independent and normal: X has mean 500 g and standard deviation 8 g, Y has mean 490 g and standard deviation 6 g. Find the probability P that X is greater than Y. Round z to two decimals.
μX = 500 g, σX = 8 gμY = 490 g, σY = 6 g
P =
3Solutions
1.Beam support reactions
Answer: RB = 70 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Taking moments about one support removes that support’s reaction from the equation.
Free-body diagram
Replace the supports with reaction forces. A roller gives one vertical reaction; with only vertical loads the pin gives one vertical reaction too.
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·5 = 50·3 + 50·4
RB = 350/5 = 70 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 100 − 70 = 30 kN
Answer
RB = 70 kN
2.Beam support reactions
Answer: RA = 16.64 kN
Static equilibrium: a body at rest has ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0 about any point. Replace each distributed load by its resultant (its area) acting at the centroid of the load diagram, and take moments about a support to remove that support’s reaction from the equation.
Resultant of the distributed load
W = 6·1.5 = 9 kN, x̄ = (3.5 + 5)/2 = 4.25 m
Equilibrium
Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive. Then vertical force balance.
ΣMA = 0: RB·3.5 = 65·2.5 + 9·4.25
RB = 200.8/3.5 = 57.36 kN
RA = 74 − 57.36 = 16.64 kN
Answer
RA = 16.64 kN
3.Truss: method of joints
Answer: FBC = −38.65 kN
Method of joints: every pin of a truss is in equilibrium, so ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0 at each joint. Start at a joint with at most two unknown member forces. A negative result means the member is in compression.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole truss. Moments about A, counter-clockwise positive.
ΣMA = 0: Cy·4 = 50·3 → Cy = 37.5 kN
ΣFy = 0: Ay = 50 − 37.5 = 12.5 kN
Joint C
The roller gives only a vertical reaction, so joint C has just two unknown member forces. Assume both in tension.
sin γ = 4/4.123 = 0.9701, cos γ = 1/4.123 = 0.2425
Zero-force members: at a joint, the forces must balance in every direction. If a joint has no load and no support, and two of its three members are in line, then the balance across that line involves only the third member, so its force is zero. If only two members meet at an unloaded joint and they are not in line, both are zero.
Joint C
BC and CD lie on one straight line and the joint carries no load. Balancing forces across that line leaves only CG.
ΣF⊥ = 0 → FCG = 0
Check with the method of joints
Solving all joints gives these member forces (T = tension, C = compression).
Method of sections: cut the beam where you want the internal forces and keep one side. The shear force V balances the vertical forces on that side, and the bending moment M balances their moments about the cut.
Support reactions
Equilibrium of the whole beam.
UDL resultant: W = w·ℓ = 3·6 = 18 kN, acting at x̄ = 3 m
ΣMA = 0: RB·6 = 3·6·3
RB = 54/6 = 9 kN
ΣFy = 0: RA = 18 − 9 = 9 kN
Cut at x = 3.5 m and keep the left part
Only forces left of the cut appear. A UDL portion acts as one force at the middle of that portion.
V = RA − (all downward loads left of the cut)
Vx = 9 − 3·3.5 = −1.5 kN
Answer
Vx = −1.5 kN
6.Shear force & bending moment
Answer: B (x = 1 m)
Largest bending moment: M changes slope wherever the shear force changes, so its peaks sit where the shear force crosses zero: under a point load, inside a distributed load, or over a support of an overhang. At a fixed support of a cantilever the moment is largest at the wall. Compare the size of M at those places, sagging or hogging.
Support reactions
Take moments about one support, then use the vertical force balance.
R1 = 57 kN, R2 = 63 kN
Bending moment at every mark
Sum the moments of all forces on one side of the cut. Sagging is positive, hogging negative.
MA = 0, MB = 54 kN·m, MC = 42, MD = 24, ME = 0, MF = −30, MG = 0
Answer
Mark B: MB = 54 kN·m
7.Beam deflection
Answer: δ = 2.397 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
w = 5 N/mm, L = 1500 mm
EI = 1.32 × 10¹² N·mm²
Deflection
δ = wL⁴/(8EI) = 5·1500⁴/(8·1.32 × 10¹²) = 2.397 mm
Answer
δ = 2.397 mm
8.Beam deflection
Answer: hreq = 165.7 mm
Beam deflection: deflections come from integrating the curvature M/(EI) twice. Standard cases are tabulated, for example PL³/(3EI) for a cantilever with an end load and 5wL⁴/(384EI) for a simply supported beam under a full uniform load. Deflections from separate loads add (superposition).
Consistent units
Work in N and mm: P in N, w in N/mm (kN/m = N/mm), L in mm, E in N/mm² (GPa × 1000), I in mm⁴.
bh³/12 = Ireq → h = (12·3.788 × 10⁷/100)1/3 = 165.7 mm
Answer
hreq = 165.7 mm
In practice, choose the next standard depth above this value.
9.Column buckling
Answer: Pcr = 107.4 kN
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A rectangle buckles about its weak axis, using the smaller dimension cubed.
Euler buckling: a slender column becomes unstable at Pcr = π²EI/(KL)², where KL is the effective length: K = 1 for pinned–pinned, 2 for fixed–free, 0.7 for fixed–pinned and 0.5 for fixed–fixed. It buckles about the axis with the smallest I. The formula holds for slender columns, whose critical stress stays below the yield stress.
Smallest second moment of area
A round section has the same I about every axis.
I = πd⁴/64 = π·60⁴/64 = 636173 mm⁴
Radius of gyration and slenderness
A = 2827 mm²
r = √(I/A) = √(636173/2827) = 15 mm
KL = 0.7·5000 = 3500 mm
KL/r = 3500/15 = 233.3
Critical stress
σcr = π²E/(KL/r)² = π²·70000/233.3² = 12.69 MPa
Answer
σcr = 12.69 MPa
11.Centroid & second moment of area
Answer: Ix = 87.58 × 10⁶ mm⁴
Second moment of area: for a rectangle about its own centroidal axis I = bh³/12, and about its base bh³/3 (parallel-axis theorem I = Ic + A·d²). A hole is handled by subtracting its I, as long as both parts share the same axis. The elastic section modulus is S = I/c, where c is the distance to the extreme fibre.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Composite areas: split the section into rectangles. The centroid is the area-weighted average ȳ = ΣAᵢyᵢ/ΣAᵢ. The second moment of area about the centroidal axis adds each part’s own bh³/12 and its parallel-axis term A·d², where d is the distance from the part’s centroid to the overall centroid. Bending stress is σ = M·y/I.
Outer rectangle minus the two side cut-outs
Both cut-outs together are (B − tw) wide and hw = H − 2tf high, and share the axis x.
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·1 = 9.81 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 66 − 9.81 = 56.19 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 56.19 kPa
14.Effective stress in soil
Answer: σ′ = 74.95 kPa
Effective stress (Terzaghi): the soil skeleton carries σ′ = σ − u. The total stress σ is the weight of everything above the point, Σγ·h, using the dry unit weight above the water table and the saturated unit weight below it. Below the water table the pore water pressure is hydrostatic: u = γw·(depth below the water table).
Total stress
Add the weight of each soil band above X. Above the water table use the dry unit weight, below it the saturated one.
σ = γd·2 + γsat,sand·3 + γsat,clay·2
σ = 16.5·2 + 19·3 + 17·2 = 124 kPa
Pore water pressure
Water pressure grows with depth below the water table.
u = γw·(z − zw) = 9.81·5 = 49.05 kPa
Effective stress
σ′ = σ − u = 124 − 49.05 = 74.95 kPa
Answer
σ′ = 74.95 kPa
15.Consolidation settlement
Answer: S = 53.96 mm
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Compare with the preconsolidation pressure
σ′f = 90 + 65 = 155 kPa ≤ 160 kPa
Settlement
The clay stays on its recompression line.
S = Cr·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0) = 0.06·8/(1 + 1.1)·log₁₀(155/90) = 53.96 mm
Answer
S = 53.96 mm
16.Consolidation settlement
Answer: t = 2.078 years
Primary consolidation of a clay layer of thickness H, using the effective stress at the middle of the layer: σ′f = σ′0 + Δσ. Normally consolidated clay: S = Cc·H/(1 + e0)·log₁₀(σ′f/σ′0). Overconsolidated clay recompresses along Cr up to the preconsolidation pressure σ′p and follows Cc only beyond it. Time: t = Tv·Hdr²/cv, where the drainage path Hdr is H/2 when water can leave at the top and bottom, and H when only one side drains.
Drainage path
Hdr = H/2 = 7/2 = 3.5 m
Time
t = Tv·Hdr²/cv = 0.848·3.5²/5 = 2.078 years
Answer
t = 2.078 years
17.Hydrostatic force
Answer: F = 275.9 kN
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 2.5 + 2.5/2 = 3.75 m
A = H·b = 2.5·3 = 7.5 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1000·9.81·3.75·7.5 = 275.9 kN
Answer
F = 275.9 kN
18.Hydrostatic force
Answer: ycp = 4.188 m
Hydrostatic force on a plane surface: F = ρ·g·yc·A. It acts at the centre of pressure, ycp = yc + Ic/(ycA), which always lies below the centroid.
Centroid depth and area
yc = d + H/2 = 2.5 + 3/2 = 4 m
A = H·b = 3·2 = 6 m²
Resultant force
F = ρ·g·yc·A = 1260·9.81·4·6 = 296.7 kN
Centre of pressure
Pressure grows with depth, so the resultant acts below the centroid.
Ic = b·H³/12 = 2·3³/12 = 4.5 m⁴
ycp = yc + Ic/(yc·A) = 4 + 4.5/(4·6) = 4.188 m
Answer
ycp = 4.188 m
19.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: hf = 3.045 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity head
V²/(2g) = 0.8²/(2·9.81) = 0.03262 m
Darcy–Weisbach
hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g) = 0.028·(500/0.15)·0.8²/(2·9.81) = 3.045 m
Answer
hf = 3.045 m
20.Pipe friction & head loss
Answer: H = 2.206 m
Pipe flow: the Reynolds number Re = V·D/ν = ρ·V·D/μ tells laminar flow (Re below about 2000) from turbulent flow (above about 4000). Friction along a pipe costs the Darcy–Weisbach head loss hf = f·(L/D)·V²/(2g). Fittings, valves, the entrance and the exit add minor losses hm = ΣK·V²/(2g). Between two open reservoir surfaces the energy equation gives Δz = hf + hm, with the exit loss K = 1 included.
Velocity
V = Q/A = 0.04/0.03142 = 1.273 m/s
V²/(2g) = 0.08263 m
Loss coefficients
f·L/D = 0.022·200/0.2 = 22
ΣK = 0.5 + 4·0.3 + 2 = 3.7
Energy equation
The outlet jet still carries its velocity head; it is not a loss but it has to be supplied.
H = (1 + 22 + 3.7)·0.08263 = 2.206 m
Answer
H = 2.206 m
21.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: Q = 10 m³/s
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Geometry
A = (b + z·y)·y = (1.5 + 3·1.4)·1.4 = 7.98 m²
P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²) = 1.5 + 2·1.4·√(1 + 3²) = 10.35 m
R = A/P = 0.7707 m
Velocity
V = (1/0.015)·0.77072/3·0.00051/2 = 1.253 m/s
Flow rate
Q = A·V = 7.98·1.253 = 10 m³/s
Answer
Q = 10 m³/s
22.Open-channel flow (Manning)
Answer: S = 0.002232 m/m
Manning’s equation (SI): for uniform flow in an open channel V = (1/n)·R2/3·S1/2 and Q = A·V, with n the roughness coefficient, S the bed slope (m/m) and R = A/P the hydraulic radius: flow area divided by wetted perimeter. Only the boundary in contact with the water counts in P, not the free surface. Rectangle: A = b·y, P = b + 2y. Trapezoid with side slopes z:1 (horizontal:vertical): A = (b + z·y)·y, P = b + 2y·√(1 + z²). A circular pipe flowing full or half full has R = D/4.
Hydraulic radius
R = D/4 = 0.375/4 = 0.09375 m
Solve Manning for S
S = (n·V/R2/3)² = (0.013·0.75/0.2064)² = 0.002232
Answer
S = 0.002232
That is a fall of 2.232 m per kilometre.
23.Pumps & pump power
Answer: Pel = 44.59 kW
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Hydraulic power
Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = 1000·9.81·0.04·72 = 28.25 kW
Shaft power
Pshaft = 28.25/0.72 = 39.24 kW
Electrical power
Pel = 39.24/0.88 = 44.59 kW
Answer
Pel = 44.59 kW
24.Pumps & pump power
Answer: H = 83.47 m
Pump power: the power given to the water is the hydraulic power Ph = ρ·g·Q·H = Q·Δp. The shaft must deliver more because the pump loses some: Pshaft = Ph/ηpump, and the motor draws Pel = Pshaft/ηmotor. The pump head H follows from the energy equation: static lift + pressure head + all friction and minor losses.
Both surfaces are practically at rest, so there is no velocity head term.
H = Δz + p/(ρ·g) + hL = 7 + 40.77 + 35.69 = 83.47 m
Answer
H = 83.47 m
25.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 40275 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
Exponent
r·t = 0.07·10 = 0.7
e0.7 = 2.014
Future value
FV = 20 000·2.014 = €40 275.05
Answer
FV = €40 275.05
26.Time value of money
Answer: FV = 22842 €
Time value of money: money today is worth more than the same amount later, because it can earn interest. With interest rate i per period, an amount grows as FV = PV·(1 + i)n. A series of equal payments (an annuity) is valued by adding up each payment, which gives the annuity formulas.
You paid in €21 000 yourself; the rest is interest.
27.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = 3889 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
Present value of the yearly cash flows
9 000·4.212 = 37 911.27
Present value of the salvage value
8 000/1.338 = 5 978.07
NPV
NPV = −40 000 + 37 911.27 + 5 978.07 = €3 889.34
Answer
NPV = €3 889.34
28.NPV & IRR
Answer: NPV = −29031 €
Net present value: discount every cash flow back to today with the required rate of return r, then add them up: NPV = Σ CFₜ/(1 + r)ᵗ. A project with NPV > 0 earns more than r and adds value. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which NPV = 0.
NPV is negative, so the project earns less than the required return.
29.Normal distribution
Answer: z = 0.79
From an area back to z: Φ(z) is the area to the left of z. For a left-tail area A, find z with Φ(z) = A in the table. A right-tail area A means Φ(z) = 1 − A. A central area A between −z and z leaves (1 − A)/2 in each tail, so Φ(z) = (1 + A)/2. For a value x, use x = μ + zσ.
Area to the left of z
Φ(z) = (1 + 0.5705)/2 = 0.7852
Read the z-table backwards
Find 0.7852 inside the table and read off z.
z = 0.79
Answer
z = 0.79
30.Normal distribution
Answer: P = 0.8413
Sums and differences of normal variables: if X and Y are independent and normal, X + Y and X − Y are normal too. Means add or subtract: E(X ± Y) = μX ± μY. Variances always add, also for a difference: Var(X ± Y) = σX² + σY², so σ = √(σX² + σY²). Standard deviations never add directly. The total of n independent items with the same distribution has mean n·μ and standard deviation σ·√n. Then standardise as usual: z = (x − mean)/σ and read Φ(z).
Distribution of the difference
μ = 500 − 490 = 10 g, σ = 10 g
Standardise
z = (0 − 10)/10 = −1
Probability
P = 1 − Φ(−1) = 0.8413
Answer
P = 0.8413
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